Sample test law objective Questions UP Law tests Like civil judge Public Prosecuter

Sample test law objective Questions UP Law tests Like civil judge Public Prosecuter
Sample Solved Questions for Civil Judge
1. ‘A’ in good faith accuses ‘Z’ before a Magistrate—
(A) ‘A’ has committed no offence
(B) ‘A’ has committed the offence of defamation
(C) ‘A’ has committed the offence of defamation but he can tale defence u/s 93 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
2. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under which section of I.P.C.?
(A) Section 228
(B) Section 228 A
(C) Section 376 A
(D) Section 376 B
Ans:-B
3. Which one of the following is an illustration of criminal attempt?
(A) ‘A’ tries to kill ‘B’ by witch-craft
(B) ‘A’ goes to Mumbai to buy dye to make counterfeit currency notes
(C) ‘A’ intending to kill ‘B’ fires at ‘B’s coat hanging in his room treating it ‘B’
(D) ‘A’ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
Ans:-C
4. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each one of them is liable—
(A) For an attempt to commit the act
(B) For the abetment of the act
(C) Only for the part each one has done
(D) As if it was done by each one of them in singular capacity
Ans:-D
5. “Death sentence should be awarded in rarest of rare cases” was held in—
(A) Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab
(B) Ramesh war Vs. State of U.P.
(C) T. V. Vatheeswaran vs. State of Tamil Nadu
(D) State of U. P. vs. M. K. Anthony
Ans:-A
6. “Right to live with human dignity does not include right to terminate natural life”, as held in—
(A) P. Rathinam vs. Union of India
(B) Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab
(C) Rajendra Prasad vs. State of U.P.
(D) Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab
Ans:-B
7. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute the offence of—
(A) Unlawful assembly
(B) Assault
(C) Affray
(D) Rioting
Ans:-D
8. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed—
(A) When the offender is acting in anger
(B) When the offender is acting under the spell of madness
(C) With the consent of the victim, who has completed 18 years of age?
(D) With the consent of the victim who has completed 12 years of age
Ans:-C
9. An employer deducts a certain percentage from the salary of his employees telling that it is their contribution to the provident fund but fails to credit it in the fund. Employer commits—
(A) Criminal misappropriation
(B) Criminal breach of trust
(C) Theft
(D) Cheating
Ans:-B
10. Under Section 498-A of I.P.C. cruelty includes—
(A) Physical cruelty only
(B) Mental cruelty only
(C) Harassment of the woman
(D) Cruelty by wife
Ans:-C
11. ‘A’ was on his journey by car from Delhi to Agra. ‘B’ met him in the way and requested for a lift up to Mathura, an intermediate town. ‘A’ acceded to his request, but on reaching Mathura, did not drop ‘B’ there in spite of his repeated requests. ‘B’ was carried over to Agra against his wishes.
(A) ‘A’ is not guilty of any offence
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of offence of abduction
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of offence of wrongful confinement
(D) ‘A’ is guilty of using criminal force
Ans:-C
12.‘A’ a school teacher for the purposes of enforcing discipline inflicts moderate punishment upon a pupil aged about 11 years. In this case—
(A) ‘A’ is entitled to claim defence under section 89 of I.P.C.
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of causing simple hurt
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of using criminal force
(D) ‘A’ is entitled to claim defence under section 88 of I.P.C.
Ans:-A
13. A’s illegal marriage with B was performed by a priest P’ knowing that the marriage was illegal; because ‘A’ was already married. A’s father ‘C’ and two other persons ‘D’ and ‘N’ were present at the time of mavtiage. In this case—
(A) ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘N’ liable for abetment
(B) Only A’s father ‘C’ is liable for abetment
(C) ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘N’ and the priest ‘P’ all are guilty of abetment
(D) Only the priest ‘P’ is liable for abetting the offence of bigamy
Ans:-D
14. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?
I. K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra —Grave and sudden provocation
2. State of Himachal Pradesh Vs. Asha Ram — Rape
3. Karan Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh— Right of Private Defence
4. Harjt Singh Vs. State of Punjab—Dowry death
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Codes:
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(A) l, 2 and 3
(C) l, 3 and 4
(D) l, 2 and 4
Ans:-D
15. The punishment for general form of Public Nuisance is provided in—
(A) Section 268 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 269 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 290 of I.P.C.
(D) Section 291 of I.P.C.
Ans:-C
16. On account of an agitation the lawyers ceased to participate in court proceedings and resorted to ‘Satyagrah’. An editorial in a newspaper criticised as to whether it behoves to the lawyers as a class to resort to strike. The lawyers were interalia described as ‘Kajia dalal’ i.e. dispute broker, in the editorial—
(A) Editor of the newspaper is guilty of offence of defamation
(B) Editor of the newspaper is not guilty of offence of defamation
(C) Not only editor, but Chairman of Board of Directors and its General Manager are also guilty of defamation
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
17. According to Mc naughten’s Rule, legal insanity is quite different from medical insanity. It relates to the—
(A) Total loss of conative faculties
(B) Total loss of cognitive faculties
(C) Congenital insanity
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
18. For the defence of mistake of fact under the Indian Penal Code—
(A) Actual mistake is sufficient
(B) The act must be reasonable
(C) The act must be reasonable as committed in good faith
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans:-C
19. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has observed that there is no right of private defence against the right of private defence?
(A)State of Punjab Vs. Sohan Singh
(B)Surjeet Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(C)State of U. P. Vs. Ram Swaroop
(D)M. R. Singh Vs. State of Gujarat
Ans:-C
20. The mens rea required under Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code is—
(A) Intention or knowledge
(B) Intention or negligence
(C) Intention or recklessness
(D) Negligence or malice
Ans:-A
21 When two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal, by illegal means, such an agreement is—
(A) Designated as a criminal conspiracy
(B) Designated as a criminal abetment
(C) Both, criminal conspiracy and abetment
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
22. ‘A’ incites his dog to spring upon ‘B’ without ‘B’s consent. ‘A’ is guilty of—
(A) Assault
(B) Criminal intimidation
(C) Criminal force
(D) Grievous hurt
Ans:-C
23. Under Section 308 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an accomplice, who does not comply with the conditions of pardon, may be prosecuted and tri separately for the offence of giving false evidence, but with the sanction of the—
(A)Sessions Court
(B)High Court
(C)State Government
(D)Chief Justice of High Court
Ans:-B
24. Under Section 77 of Cr. P.C. a warrant of arrest may be executed—
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant
(B) Within the session division
(C) At any place within the Stat
(D) At any place in India
Ans:-D
25. Under which provision of Cr. P.C. on receipt of First Information Report for the commission of an offence, the officer-in-charge of the police station will send the copy to the concerned Magistrate?
(A) Under Section 154 Cr. P.C.
(B) Under Section 159 Cr. P.C.
(C) Under Section 156 Cr. P.C.
(D) Under Section 157 Cr. P.C.
Ans:-D
26. Non-cognizable offence means an offence wherein—
(A) A police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(B) A police officer can arrest at his discretion
(C) A police officer has authority to arrest without warrant
(D) On request of complainant, arrest can be made
Ans:-A
27. Whether any criminal court can impound any document produced before it?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only civil court can impound
(D) With the consent of the senior officer it can be impounded
Ans:-A
28. Can a Magistrate order the search of any place in his presence, for the search of which he is empowered to issue a search warrant?
(A) Yes, under Section 103 Cr. P.C.
(B) Yes, under Section 104 Cr. P.C.
(C) No
(D) Yes, under Section 105 Cr. P.C.
Ans:-A
29. Summon’s case means—
(A) A case which is not a warrant case
(B) A case in which security is not required
(C) A case through which offence of theft is tried
(D) A case in which only summons can be served during trial
Ans:-A
30. Which one of the following cases is related to defective investigation?
(A) D. K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal
(B) Zahira Habibullah Sheikh Vs. State of Gujarat
(C) Sakshi Vs. Union of India
(D) Dipesh Chandak Vs. Union of India
Ans:-B
31. Which of the following statements is not correct, with reference to Section 125 of the code of criminal procedure?
(A) Section 125 cannot be used against a person who does not possess sufficient economic means
(B) The obligation t maintain a married daughter whose husband is unemployed, is of the father of such daughter
(C) A married daughter also has an obligation to maintain her parents who are unable to maintain themselves
(D) A woman who has taken divorce from her husband and has not remarried may claim maintenance from her exhusband
Ans:-B
32. When a case is instituted under Section 199(2) of Cr. P.C., the procedure of trial
adopted in such a case is—
(A) Session trial
(B) Trial of warrant case instituted on police report
(C) Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise than a police report
(D) Summons trial
Ans:-A
33. The offence committed under which section of I.P.C. is not compoundable under section 320 of Cr. P.C.?
(A) Section 352
(B) Section 353
(C) Section 354
(D) Section 355
Ans:-B
34. “The object of proceedings under Section 145 Cr. P.C. is to ward-off danger of breach of peace and not to determine t title.” It was observed in the case o—
(A) Union of India V s. Ajee-bunissan Khatoon
(B) Nandi Ram Vs. Chandi Ram
(C) Roshan Lal Vs. State
(D) Ramadhin Vs. Shyama Devi
Ans:-A
35. In which case, the presence of accused may be dispensed with at the time of delivering the judgement?
(A) When the personal attendance of the accused has already been dispensed with
(B) When the judgement is that of acquittal
(C) In both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
36. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has the power to try a summons case as a warrant case, wherein the offence to be tried there under is punishable with the imprisonment—
(A) Exceeding 6 months
(B) Exceeding 4 months
(C) Exceeding 1 year
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
37. In every criminal trial, when the Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused.
(A) Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence can be passed
(B) Wrong, it is not required in summons case
(C) It is required only before sending the conviction warrant
(D) Not required at all in any case
Ans:-A
38. The procedure for trial before a court of sessions is provided in the following sections of Cr. P.C.—
(A) 260 to 265
(B) 238to250
(C) 251 to 259
(D) 225 to 237
Ans:-D
39. Which of the following statements is not correct under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(A) Where a private person or an authorised person has a right to arrest a person and hand him over to the custody of police; such private person can also make search of such arrested person
(B) Enquiry and trial, both are included in ‘judicial proceedings’
(C) Complaint may be made by any person and it is not necessary that the injured or the affected only should complain
(D) Charges are framed only in warrant cases; there is no need to frame charge sheet in petty summons cases
Ans:-A
40. Under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate—
(A) Has the power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings
(B) Has no power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings
(C) Has power to grant interim maintenance but no power to grant expenses of the proceedings
(D) Has no power to grant interim maintenance but has the power to grant expenses of the proceedings
Ans:-A
41. Where any judge or Magistrate is personally interested in a case, he shall neither try nor commit for trial such case, nor shall hear any appeal in such case, provided—
(A) Prior permission of High Court has been procured
(B) Prior permission of the Chief Justice of High Court has been procured
(C) Prior permission of its appellate court has been obtained
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
42. In which of the following cases, it was held that provisions of chapter VIII of Cr. P.C. being in public interest are not violative of Article 19 of the Constitution of India—
(A) Ram Charan Vs. State
(B) Shiv Narain Vs. Ban Mali
(C) Madhu Limaye Vs. S.D.M., Monghyr
(D) Ram Prasad Vs. Emperor
Ans:-C
43. By Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005, in Section 459 of Cr. P.C. the words ‘less than ten Rupees’ have been substituted by the words—
(A) Less than five hundred Rupees
(B) Less than fifty Rupees
(C) Less than one hundred Rupees
(D) Less than two hundred and fifty Rupees
Ans:-A
44. When there is dispute between two courts relating to exercise of jurisdiction in a criminal matter and said courts are under subordination of different High Courts, the matter shall be decided under Section 186 of Cr. P.C. by the—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court of the larger State
(C) High Court having more judges
(D) High Court within whose area the proceedings first commenced
Ans:-D
45. Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per Section 468 of Cr. P.C. is—
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years
Ans:-D
46. The power of Magistrate to detain a person for the purposes of police investigation is for a maximum period of—
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years
Ans:-C
47. On refusal by any witness to answer a question or to produce a document upon being asked for, he may be sentenced to imprisonment for a period of—
(A) 30 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 14 days
(D) One month
Ans:-B
48. According to which section of the Police Act, 1861, a police officer may be deployed in any part of the District?
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
Ans:-C
49. Under Paragraph 169 of U. P. Police Regulations, it is the duty of the Public
Prosecutor to bring to the notice of the Magistrate concerned all cases in which
unclaimed property has been lying in Malkhana for more than—
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 3 months
(D) 2 years
Ans:-A
50. Paragraph 140 of U. P. Police Regulations requires that when a police officer sends a person for examination by a medical officer—
(A) He should clearly explain the object of such examination
(B) He should fix the time within which the medical examination must be completed
(C) He should send an escort along with the person to be medically examined
(D) He should take all care so that the person may not abscond
Ans:-A

Sample Paper containing questions on Surveying for geology and Civil Engineering exams

Sample Paper  containing questions on Surveying for geology and Civil Engineering exams
Free 25 Objective questions on surveying
1: The curvation of the earth is considered in:
(a) Plane surveying
(b) Geodetic surveying
(c) Cadastral surveying
(d) Hydrographic surveying
Answer. (b)

2: Surveys which depict the natural ‘features of a country are known as:
(a) Cadastral surveys
(b) Engineering surveys
(c) Topographic surveys
(d) Geological surveys.
Answer. (c)

3: A 30 m chain is divided into:
(a) 100 links
(b) 150 links
(c) 200 links
(d) 250 links.
Answer. (b)

4: The length of Gunter’s chain is:
(a) 100 ft
(b) 75 ft
(c) 66 ft
(d) 55 ft
Answer. (c)

5: “One link” Ina chain means the distance from:
(a) Centre to centre of inner rings
(b) Centre to centre of outer rings
(c) One end of the link to another end
(d) Centre to centre of middle rings
Answer. (d)

6: Chain survey is recommended when the area is:
(a) Simple and fairly level
(b) Undulating
(c) Crowded
(d) Hilly.
Answer. (a)

7: A triangle said to be well conditioned when its angles should be between:
(a) 20° to 100°
(b) 30° to 90°
(c) 15° to 115°
(d) 30° to 120°.
Answer. (d)

8: Perpendicular offsets may be taken by setting the right angle in the ratio:
(a) 3:4:5.
(b) 2:4:9.
(c) 3:6:9.
(d) 2:4:5.
Answer. (a)

9: ln a surveyor’s compass, the ring is graduated:
(a) From 0° to 360 °.
(b) From 0° to 180 °.
(c) From 0° to 90°.
(d) In any way.
Answer. (c)

10: The plane table map cannot be plotted to a different scale, as there is no:
(a) Field book.
(b) Log book.
(c) Level book.
(d) Rough book.
Answer. (a)

11: In plane table survey, the operation which must be carried out is:
(a) Resection.
(b) Orientation.
(c) Radiation.
(d) Intersection.
Answer. (b)

12: The U-fork and plumb bob are required for:
(a) Levelling.
(b) Orientation.
(c) Centring.
(d) Marking the north line.
Answer. (c)

13:The instrument which is used for sighting of a object in plane tabling is known as:
(a) Trough compass.
(b) Alidade.
(c) Spirit level.
(d) U-fork.
Answer. (b)

14:The north line of the map is marked on the:
(a) Right-hand top corner.
(b) Highs-hand bottom corner.
(c) Left-hand lop corner.
(d) Left-hand bottom corner.
Answer. (a)

15:The horizontal angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian is known as:
(a) Magnetic line.
(b) Magnetic declination.
(c) Dip.
(d) Agonic line.
Answer. (b)

16:The true meridian passes through:
(a) Geographical poles.
(b) Magnetic poles.
(c) East-west of the earth.
(d) Arbitary poles.
Answer. (a)

17: At the magnetic pole, the dip of the needle is:
(a) 0°.
(b) 45°
(c) 90°.
(d) 180°.
Answer. (c)

18: ln the Quadranatal Bearing, line is said to free from local attraction, if the FB and BB
are:
(a) Numerically equal.
(b) Numerically equal with opposite quadrants.
(c) Numerically unequal.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)

19: The Bench Mark (BM) established by the survey of India is known as the:
(a) GTS BM.
(b) Arbitrary BM.
(c) Permanent BM.
(d) Levelled BM.
Answer. (a)

20: The datum adopted for India is the:
(a) MSL at Calcutta.
(b) MSL at Karachi.
(c) MSL at Madras.
(d) MSL at Mumbai.
Answer. (b)

21: The line of collimation and axis of the telescope should:
(a) Coincide.
(b) Be diagonal.
(c) Be perpendicular.
(d) Be parallel.
Answer. (a)

22: Mean sea level at any place is the average datum of hourly tide heightsover a period
of:
(a) 10 years.
(b) 15 years.
(c) 19 years.
(d) 25 years.
Answer. (c)

23: A metric levelling staff is divided into metres, decimetres and the smallest division is:
(a) 1 cm.
(b) 0.5 cm.
(c) 0.8 cm.
(d) 0.2 cm.
Answer. (b)

24: The point on which both back-sight and fore-sight are taken is known as:
(a) Back levelling point.
(b) Fore levelling point.
(c) Change point.
(d) Replacement point.
Answer. (c)

25: When there is a relative movement between the cross-hairs and staff reading, it is
known as:
(a) Parallex.
(b) Collination error.
(c) Refraction error.
(d) Axial error.
Answer. (a)

Psychology Model Test Paper

Psychology Model Test Paper
1. Who among the following proposed a theory of motivation based on the concept of need?
(a) Maslow
(b) Murray
(c) Hull
(d) Freud
Ans. (b)

2. Who among the following psychologists suggested that each person .has an essential nature that “presses” to emerge, like the “press’’ within an acorn to become an oak tree.
(a) Maslow
(b) Rogers
(c) Freud
(d) Erikson
Ans. (a)

3. “The term motivation refers to the arousal of tendency to act, to produce one or more effects.” The above definition was given by
(a) Gudilford
(b) Atkinson
(c) Hebb
(d) Maslow
Ans. (b)

4. ……… is a widely used projective test of personality in which individuals are asked to describe what they see in a series of inkblots.
(a) Rorschach Test
(b) TAT
(c) NEO-PI
(d) MCMI
Ans. (a)

5. In the anterior, or front, of the hypothalamus are nerve cells called ____, which generate nerve impulses when they are dehydrated.
(a) Double — depletion hypothesis
(b) Osmoreceptors
(c) Renin
(d) Angiotensin
Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following hormones is involved in the breakdown of fats, and is released when food reaches the part of the intestine immediately below the stomach?..
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Thyrotropin
(d) Antidiuretic
Ans. (b)

7. Which of the following changes is produced by water deficit in the blood and fluids surrounding the body cells?
(a) Decreases their volume
(b) Increases the concentration of certain chemicals
(c) Impairment of weight control system
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)

8. According to Maslow’s theory is thought to be the top need in a hierarchy of needs or motives.
(a) Esteem needs
(b) Self actualization
(c) Belongingness and love needs
(d) Safety needs
Ans. (b)

9. During which of the following psychosexual stages the male child develops the Oedipus complex?
(a) Anal stage
(b) Phallic stage
(c) Latency stage
(d) Genital stage
Ans. (b)

10. Which one of the following statements is not correct about 16 PF (Sixteen factor personality inventory):
(a) This test was developed by Cattell
(b) In this technique factor analysis is used to identify the basic personality structure
(c) This is a subjective technique
(d) It is used for high school students to adults
Ans. (c)

11. ______ are powerful tools for the explanation of behavior, and they allow us to make predictions about future behavior.
(a) Needs
(b) Motives
(c) Drives
(d) Conflicts
Ans. (b)

12. Which of the following theories is a hedonistic theory, that says that we are motivated to seek goals which give us good emotional feelings and avoid goals resulting in displeasure?
(a) Drive theories
(b) The opponent-process theory
(c) Optimal-level theories
(d) Incentive theories
Ans. (b)

13. Who among the following proposed that emotional states are a function of the interaction of cognitive factors and a state of physiological arousal?
(a) William James
(b) Schachter
(c) Maslow
(d) Con Lange
Ans. (b)

14. Which one of the following statements is correct about ‘super ego’?
(a) It is acquired from our parents and through experience
(b) It is the final aspect of personality described by Freud
(c) It represents our internalization of the moral teachings and norms of our society
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

15. Which of the following emotions is termed as negative emotion?
(a) Amusement
(b) Curiosity
(c) Fear
(d) Joy
Ans. (c)

16. Which of the following theories of motivation might be described as the ‘Push theories of motivation’?
(a) Social learning theory
(b) Drive theories
(c) Incentive theories
(d) Opener process theory
Ans. (b)

17. Need for ______ was one of the first social motives to be studied in detail, and research into this motive continues.
(a) Power
(b) Achievement
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Sex
Ans. (b)

18. In the study, biological aspects of motivation, researchers frequently use the procedures of _____ for the study of motivation.
(a) Deprivation
(b) Stimulation
(c) Incentives
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

19. Consider the following statements:
1. Observational learning generally takes place in a social situation involving a model and an imitator.
2. The imitator in an observational learning observes the model and experiences the model’s behavior and its consequences vicariously
Select the correct answer from the options given below
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

20. ______ used the term instinct to denote as an inherited disposition that has three components i.e., energizing, action and goal direction.
(a) Atkinson
(b) Mc Dougall
(c) Mc Clelland
(d) Maslow
Ans. (b)

21. Which of the following statements about children’s reaction to excessive levels of basic anxiety is correct?
(a) A Passive Style In which children try to cope by being agreeable and
compliant
(b) An Aggressive Style In which children fight to get attention
(c) A Withdrawn Style In which children repress their emotions
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

22. The preoptic area of the _____ monitors body temperature and activates homeostatic mechanism.
(a) Thalamus
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Amygdale
(d) Hippocampus
Ans. (b)

23. Studies have shown the role of in emotions, located in the centre of the brain.
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Limbic system
(c) Pituitary
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

24. Which one of the following statements about Roger’s self theory towards becoming a fully functioning person is not correct?
(a) A fully functioning person strives to experience life to the fullest
(b) A fully functioning person lives in the here and now and trusts his own feelings
(c) A fully functioning person is sensitive to the needs and rights of others
(a) A fully functioning person allows society’s standards to shape his feelings or actions to an excessive degree
Ans. (d)

25. _____, a famous psychologist at Harvard during the late 1800s believed that the important factor in our felt emotion is the feedback from the bodily changes that occur in response to a frightening or upsetting situation.
(a) Cannon
(b) William James
(c) Carl Lange
(d) Abraham Maslow
Ans. (b)

Quiz Containing Objective Questions on Economics

Quiz Containing Objective Questions on Economics

Economics - Online Multiple Choice Questions

1. Identify the correct chronology of the following :

I. Fisher’s test of significance of differences between means of

three or more samples.

II. Kendal’s partial rank correlation.

III. Gossest’s T test of significance between means of two samples.

IV. X² test of goodness of fit of the curve and randomness of the

sample values.

  Codes :

(A) III, I, II, IV

(B) I, II, III, IV

(C) IV, III, II, I

(D) I, II, IV, III

Ans :A

2. Identify the sequence of implementation of the following taxes.

Select the correct answer from the given codes :

I. Land Revenue

II. Sales tax

III. MODVAT

IV. Service tax

Codes :

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, IV, I, III

(C) III, II, IV, I

(D) IV, II, I, III

Ans :A

3. Marginal Revenue of a Monopoly firm is less than the price, Because :

(A) Demand curve has a positive slope.

(B) Demand curve has a negative slope.

(C) Monopolist incurs losses.

(D) Monopolist is in equilibrium.

Ans :B

4. Which of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman ?

(A) Rural housing

(B) Rural electrification

(C) Agro-based industries

(D) Rural telephony

Ans :C

5. Harrod-Domar model of economic growth is based upon

I. Warranted growth rate

II. Investment growth rate

III. Productivity growth rate

IV. Natural growth rate

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(C) III and IV are correct.

(D) I and IV are correct.

Ans :D

6. Assertion (A) : During the period 2004-05 to 2007-08 fiscal consolidation process was witnessed in India.

Reason (R) : There was buoyancy in tax revenue during this period.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and

(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

7. Assertion (A) : Gold standard was finally given up after the Second World War.

Reason (R) : Countries had different rates of inflation.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of

(A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

8. Arrange the stages of economic growth in a sequential order :

I. The age of high mass consumption

II. The traditional society

III. The take-off stage

IV. The drive to maturity

Codes :

(A) I, III, IV, II

(B) II, IV, I, III

(C) III, I, II, IV

(D) II, III, IV, I

Ans :D

9. The classical economists focused on the role of money as

(A) medium of exchange

(B) medium of distribution

(C) wealth

(D) link between present and future

Ans :A

10. Harrod-Domar model of economic growth is based on the equilibrium

between

(A) Income generation and productive capacity creation

(B) Equilibrium between income and consumption

(C) Equilibrium between savings and investment

(D) None of the above

Ans :A

11. Which of the following measures of the central tendency suits the data best

if the objective is to assess the distribution of values ?

(A) Arithmetic mean

(B) Mode

(C) Median

(D) Kurtosis

Ans :C

12. In India, in 2004-05 the number of poor persons below poverty line was

the highest in the State of

(A) Bihar

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Rajasthan

Ans :B

13. The problem relating to burden of public debt has been dealt by

I. A.P. Learner

II. E.D. Domar

III. A.C. Pigou

IV. A.H. Henson

Codes :

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(C) I and IV are correct.

(D) II and III are correct.

Ans :A

14. Assertion (A) : Giffin’s paradox rarely occurs in the real world.

Reason (R) : Inferior goods are narrowly defined for which

suitable substitutes are available.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation

of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

15. Assertion (A) : Financial inclusion is desirable to help weaker sections

of society in the country.

Reason (R) : Investment activity needs to be promoted to facilitate access to development benefits to masses.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation

of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

Ans :B

16. Assertion (A) : Disguised unemployment is present in

Indian agriculture.

Reason (R) : Marginal productivity of agriculture is close to zero.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation

of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Ans :A

17. Consider the following schemes :

I. EAS

II. TRYSEM

III. JRY

 IV. RLEGP

The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these schemes are :

Codes :

(A) II, IV, I, III

(B) IV, II, III, I

(C) IV, III, I, II

(D) II, IV, III, I

Ans :A

18. Arrange the origin of money in a

sequential order

I. Cheque

II. Metallic money

III. Commodity money

IV. Paper money

Codes :

(A) IV, I, III, II

(B) I, III, II, IV

(C) III, II, IV, I

(D) II, IV, I, III

Ans :C

19. Identify the correct chronological order

of the following classical economists :

(A) Adam Smith, Malthus, Ricardo, J.S. Mill

(B) Adam Smith, Ricardo, Malthus,J.S. Mill

(C) Adam Smith, J.S. Mill, Ricardo,Malthus

(D) Adam Smith, Malthus, J.S. Mill,Ricardo

Ans :B

20. Arrange the following theories in order in which they appeared :

I. Comparative Cost Advantage Theory

II. Absolute Cost Advantage Theory

III. Leontief Paradox

IV. Factor Endowment Theory

Codes :

(A) I, III, II, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) II, I, IV, III

(D) I, IV, II, III

Ans :C

 

GK for Exams of LIC and Other Insurance Companies

GK for Exams of LIC and Other Insurance Companies

GK for LIC Assistant Administrative Officer Exam

1. Which of the following types of companies/organizations issue ‘ULIP’?

(1) Insurance companies

(2) Banks

(3) NABARD

(4) RBI

(5) All of these

Ans. (1)

2. Insurance business in India is regulated by which of the following authorities?

(1) NFCG

(2) IRDA

(3) CII

(4) FICCI

(5) All of these

Ans. (2)

3. Which amongst the following is/was NOT an insurance company functioning in India?

(1) ICICI Prudential

(2) ING Vysya

(3) ICICI Lombard

(4) New India Assurance Company

(5) National Securities Depository Ltd

Ans. (5)

4. Which of the following is the only public sector company in the field of life insurance?

(1) General Insurance Company

(2) New India Assurance Company.

(3) Oriental Insurance Company

(4) Sahara Life Insurance

(5) Life Insurance Corporation of India

Ans. (5)

5. “A contract that pledges payment of an agreed upon amount to the person (or his/her nominee) on the happening of an event covered against” is technically known as

(U Death coverage

(2) Life Insurance

(3) Savings for future

(4) Provident Fund

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

6. As per the news published in various newspapers, Life Insurance policies may become paper- less n the near future. This means

(1) LIC will not insure any person here after as it has already reached its peak

(2) LIC will not ask for any documents from a person who wishes to purchase an insurance policy

(3) All policy related documents and policy certificates will henceforth be available in electronic form and not in their present physical form and not in their present physical form

(4) LIC henceforth will not entertain any claim or complaint in written form or on paper. Things should be in electronic mode only

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

7. In insurance policies always find, a date which is  date  of Maturity”. What does it mean?

(1) This is the date on which the policy was sold to the customer/person insured.

(2) This is the date on which the policy holder will have to submit his/her claim seeking the amount of the policy. Otherwise the company will not make any payment to him/ her.

(3) This is the date on which the contract between the person and insurance company will come to an end.

(4) The date on which the Insurance company makes the final payment to the insured person which is normally fifteen days after the “payment due date”.

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)

8. As we know, the Government is paying much attention to “Micro Finance” these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance?

(1) Insurance for life

(2) Investment in Mutual Funds

(3) Self Help Groups

(4) Letter of Credit

(5) All of these

Ans. (3)

9. Which of the following insurance plan is not launched by LIC?

(1) Jeevan Chhaya

(2) Life Mahalife Gold Plan

(3) Child Career Plan

(4) Child Future Plan

(5) Jeevan Saral

Ans. (2)

10. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The White Tiger”?

(1) Arundhati Roy

(2) V. S. Naipaul

(3) Kiran Dai

(4) Vikram Seth

(5) Aravind Adiga

Ans. (5)

11. Which of the following is the best description of what insurance is? (Many times companies also communicate the same to the person interested in getting an insurance policy)

(1) Insurance = Collective bearing of risk

(2) Insurance = Paying for other’s mistakes

(3) Insurance = Taking from A’ to pay B’

(4) Insurance = Paying for something which will never happen

(5) All of these

Ans. (1)

12. Which of the following organisations/agencies frame the Monetary and Credit Polity which is followed by all banks in India?

(1) Indian Bank’s Association

(2) Reserve Bank of India

(3) Securities & Exchange Board of India

(4) Government of India

(5) None of these

Ans. (2)

13. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?

(1) Penalty stroke

(2) Knock out

(3) Bully

(4) Checkmate

(5) Silly point

Ans. (5)

14. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the world of finance banking and Insurance?

(1)Devaluation

(2) Amnesty

(3) Hard currency

(4) Preference share

(5) Sinking fund

Ans. (2)

15. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field ‘of Sports?

(1) Gnanpith Award

(2) Bharat Ratna

(3) Arjuna Award

(4) Kalidas Samman

(5) None of these

Ans. (3)