verbal reasoning quiz in English!
verbal reasoning quiz practice test
Verbal Reasoning Test
1. Four of the following five are all alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Sultry
(2) Hot
(3) Humid
(4) Warm
(5) Cool
Ans. (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 126
(2) 217
(3) 345
(4) 513
(5) 730
Ans. (3)
3. If its possible to make a meaningful English word with the seventh, the tenth and the fourth letters of the word ARIS OPATHOLOGY and the only vowel from the word ‘TOP’, the third letter of that word is your answer. If more than one English word can be formed, M is your answer. If no such word can be formed, your answer is ‘N’.
(1) O
(2) P
(3) S
(4) M
(5) N
Ans. (4)
4. In a row of girls Ravina is 15th from the left and Mohini is 18th from the right. If they interchange their places. Mohini be comes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(1) 33
(2) 48
(3) 47
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
5. In a certain code language ‘SHORT’ is written as ‘ITOUS’ and ‘DWARF’ is written as ‘XEAGS’. How is ’MANGO’ written in that code language?
(1) NBNHP
(2) BNNPH
(3) BNNHP
(4) LBNPF
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
6. Four of the following live are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Now
(2) After Then
(3) Then
(4) Before
(5) Again
Ans. (5)
7. Among four persons B is taller than C, A is taller than D, but not as tall as C. Who among them is the tallest?
(1) A
(2) 5
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
8. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols? Y9B* W*DV7 *U5F?
(1) S3H*
(2) T#H*
(3) T*# H
(4) S*H5
(5) SH*I
Ans. (1)
9. In a certain code language ‘MEAL’ is written as ‘$£*@’ and ‘SAFE’ is written as ‘@*+£’. How is ‘FAME’ written in that code language?
(1) +*$E
(2) *+$@
(3) +@$
(4) £@*+
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
10. ‘If is related to condition’ in the same way as ‘but’ is related to —
(1) Supplement
(2) Negation
(3) Contradiction
(4) Strengthen
(5) Disapproval
Ans. (3)
Thursday, September 1, 2011
Objective English For SAIL BHEL ONGC IOC Exam
Objective English For SAIL BHEL ONGC IOC Exam
English MCQ for Exams
Directions (1-10) In each question below a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type is given. One of them or both may contain error. You have to find out the correct word .of group of words from among the three choices denoted by (A), (B) and (C) given below each sentence which can replace the wrong word/group. of words and make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5)
i.e. No Correction Required as your answer.
1. Our firm determination had due impact on them and they will be changed their decision.
(A) having ……. have changed
(B) emphasised ………. will be changed
(C) had ……… changed
(1) A only
(2) B Only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
2. Deep breathing exercises are found to be of extreme helpful to patients suffering from high blood pressure.
(A) Deeply breathing ……. extremely helpful
(B) Deep breathing ……. of extreme help
(C) Deep breathing ..... extremely helpful
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
3. By the time they reach the station, the train had been departed.
(A) reached …. has
(B) reach …. had
(C) reached ….. had
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
4. These days, customers have been receiving better services from bank employees.
(A) received …… by
(B) been received ….. from
(C) received ….. from
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
5. It was heartening news that you narrowly escaped being run over by a speeding car yesterday.
(A) narrowed …… run over
(B) narrowly ……. run across
(C) narrowed down ……. Running over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
6. What matters most is the quality of the product and only not merely the cost, appearance or site.
(A) What ….. not merely
(B) It ….. not only
(C) All that …… only not mere
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
7. Your investment advisor should be concerned about the security of high returns on your investment rather than his benefit.
(A) should b concern ….. for
(B) should have concern …… with
(C) should be having concern ….. over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or B
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
8. People who are insensitive and indifference to the agonies of the poor cannot serve the society.
(A) indifference …… suffering
(B) indifferent ……. suffering
(C) indifferent …….. agonies
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (4)
9. Getting carry away by slightest provocation is a sigh of immaturity.
(A) Getting carried away …… immaturity
(B) Get carry away ……… maturity
(C) Get carried away ……. Maturity
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
10. Our employees are so careful in their work that one has been so far found any error in their work.
(A) very careful ….. have so far found
(B) so careful ….. has so far found
(C) so efficient …… have so far found
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (2)
Directions (11-20) : In each question below, two sentences are given’ These two sentences are to be combined into a single sentence without changing their meaning. Three probable starters of the combined sentence are given which are denoted by (A), (B) and (C). Any or more or none of’ them may be correct. Find out the correct starter (s) and accordingly select your answer from among the given five answer choices.
11. It is very cold here. You must carry warm clothes with you.
(A) Since you must …..
(B) As it is very ……
(C) If it is very …..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B.
(3) Only C
(4) A and C only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (2)
12. You must sign your railway pass, write your name and age on it, According to the railway authorities, it becomes valid only after that.
(A) To make your railway pass valid, the railway authorities should …..
(B) Without validating your railway pass, you cannot sign ……
(C) To validate your railway pass, you must ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (3)
13. The doctor says that Ramesh has lost his immunity. Therefore, he is vulnerable to any disease.
(A) Ramesh’s loss of immunity …..
(B) Because of his vulnerability to his …….
(C) His vulnerability to any disease ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) Only A and B
Ans. (1)
14. How much you speak is less important. What is more important is how relevant you speak.
(A) How relevant you speak is …….
(B) How much you speak is as important …….
(C) How relevant you speak is not as important ……
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
15. You must submit a copy of your ration card. Only then your application for telephone connection will be considered.
(A) Unless you submit ……
(B) Unless your application for …….
(C) Without your application for …….
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and B
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
16. You need two tickets? Please stand in the queue.
(A) If you need ……
(B) In case you need …..
(C) Should you need …..
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
17. The quality of the fabric was not impressive. We changed our plan of purchasing.
(A) The quality of the fabric being ……
(B) We changed our …..
(C) In spite of the unimpressive …….
(l) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C
(4) A only
(5) All the three A, B and C
Ans. (1)
18. Madhuri has been consistent in her studies. Her performance in the examination was nothing else but excellent.
(A) Despite being consistent in her studies …….
(B Madhuri’s performance in the examination was not excellent because …….
(C) Because Madhuri was only consistent and not intelligent, her performance ……..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All the three A, B and C
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
19. Don’t add so much chilly powder to the soup. Consumers are only small children.
(A) Because small children do not allow chilly powder ……
(B) Since small children do not consume more soup …….
(C) Adding more chilly powder to. soup makes the small children like the …..
(1) None
(2) A only
(3) B only
(4) C only
(5) A and C only
Ans. (1)
20. He always delays in taking any action. It makes others suffer a lot.
(A) His taking action on time makes ……
(B) Other suffer a lot because of …..
(C) On account of his procrastination…..
(l) A, B and C
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and C only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
Directions (21-25) : In each question, there are three sentences denoted by
(A), (B) and (C). Find our which two or three sentences convey the same meanings. If all three sentences are different, mark 5 as the answer i.e. ‘all different’.
21. (A) The Manager would like you to help him locate the fault.
(B) If you help him locate the fault, the Manager would like you.
(C) The Manager desires that you should provide him the necessary assistance to locate the fault.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (3)
22. (A) Although the strike of transporters continues, I shall come.
(B) I shall come If the strike of transporters continues.
(C) Even though I come, the strike of transporters is going to continue.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
23. (A) Unlike the tribals who are hard working, the urban communities cannot withstand physical train.
(B) The tribals can withstand physical strain whereas urban communities cannot.
(C) Because the tribals are hardworking they can tolerate physical strain.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
24. (A) Should you need a visa you must submit an application along with your Passport and a copy of Income tax returns.
(B) Unless you do not submit an application along with your passport and “copy of income tax returns, you will not get visa”.
(C) If you submit your application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns you do not need visa.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
25. (A) The judge remarked that not all the accused were really guilty.
(B) The judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty while others were not.
(C) The judge remarked that all those who are accused include some who are not really guilty.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (4)
Directions (26-30): Each question is a set of 3 or 4 sentences which convey an idea. Of these, one or two is/are suppressed. To fill up the spaces of the suppressed sentence (s) two possible fillers denoted by (A) and (B) are given. Find out which one, two or none can fill up the space of the suppressed sentence (s) to make the paragraph meaningful and mark your answer accordingly.
26. As far as aircraft maintenance procedures are concerned, they are rigorous. (___)Such cases may end up in disastrous results, though exceptionally.
(A) All problems are immediately corrected on almost every occasion.
(B) Only due to urgency or want of aircraft for substitution, certain ones are overlooked.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
27. The interrogation lasted for about nine full working days (___). The judge observed that he was impressed with the outcome as the involvement of the accused in the crime was crystal clean.
(A) Hardly anything worth the name came out of such a marathon interrogation.
(B) The prosecution lawyer though in vain, had relentlessly applied all has wit to expose the accused.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
28. Auto riding is a very fascinating hobby (___). It is obvious that they consider the hobby more important that anything else.
(A) Low or even middle income group can’t afford it.
(B) I know many people who has missed many important cases or opportunities in autoriding
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
29. There is no doubt that we must befair and honest in all our dealings (___). What you really are is less important than what you are perceived by people around you.
(A) It means that perception assumes greater importance that reality
(B) But even more important is how you are perceived by others.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
30. The admiration for those who fight against corruption in high places has always been very spontaneous amongst the common people in India. They unhasitantly appreciate such acts but are afraid of openly doing so far fear of the higher ups.
(A) They hold such people in high esteem who make sacrifices on principles and moral issues.
(B) They make verbose speeches of admiration and appreciation of such acts.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
English MCQ for Exams
Directions (1-10) In each question below a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type is given. One of them or both may contain error. You have to find out the correct word .of group of words from among the three choices denoted by (A), (B) and (C) given below each sentence which can replace the wrong word/group. of words and make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5)
i.e. No Correction Required as your answer.
1. Our firm determination had due impact on them and they will be changed their decision.
(A) having ……. have changed
(B) emphasised ………. will be changed
(C) had ……… changed
(1) A only
(2) B Only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
2. Deep breathing exercises are found to be of extreme helpful to patients suffering from high blood pressure.
(A) Deeply breathing ……. extremely helpful
(B) Deep breathing ……. of extreme help
(C) Deep breathing ..... extremely helpful
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
3. By the time they reach the station, the train had been departed.
(A) reached …. has
(B) reach …. had
(C) reached ….. had
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
4. These days, customers have been receiving better services from bank employees.
(A) received …… by
(B) been received ….. from
(C) received ….. from
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
5. It was heartening news that you narrowly escaped being run over by a speeding car yesterday.
(A) narrowed …… run over
(B) narrowly ……. run across
(C) narrowed down ……. Running over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
6. What matters most is the quality of the product and only not merely the cost, appearance or site.
(A) What ….. not merely
(B) It ….. not only
(C) All that …… only not mere
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
7. Your investment advisor should be concerned about the security of high returns on your investment rather than his benefit.
(A) should b concern ….. for
(B) should have concern …… with
(C) should be having concern ….. over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or B
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
8. People who are insensitive and indifference to the agonies of the poor cannot serve the society.
(A) indifference …… suffering
(B) indifferent ……. suffering
(C) indifferent …….. agonies
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (4)
9. Getting carry away by slightest provocation is a sigh of immaturity.
(A) Getting carried away …… immaturity
(B) Get carry away ……… maturity
(C) Get carried away ……. Maturity
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
10. Our employees are so careful in their work that one has been so far found any error in their work.
(A) very careful ….. have so far found
(B) so careful ….. has so far found
(C) so efficient …… have so far found
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (2)
Directions (11-20) : In each question below, two sentences are given’ These two sentences are to be combined into a single sentence without changing their meaning. Three probable starters of the combined sentence are given which are denoted by (A), (B) and (C). Any or more or none of’ them may be correct. Find out the correct starter (s) and accordingly select your answer from among the given five answer choices.
11. It is very cold here. You must carry warm clothes with you.
(A) Since you must …..
(B) As it is very ……
(C) If it is very …..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B.
(3) Only C
(4) A and C only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (2)
12. You must sign your railway pass, write your name and age on it, According to the railway authorities, it becomes valid only after that.
(A) To make your railway pass valid, the railway authorities should …..
(B) Without validating your railway pass, you cannot sign ……
(C) To validate your railway pass, you must ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (3)
13. The doctor says that Ramesh has lost his immunity. Therefore, he is vulnerable to any disease.
(A) Ramesh’s loss of immunity …..
(B) Because of his vulnerability to his …….
(C) His vulnerability to any disease ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) Only A and B
Ans. (1)
14. How much you speak is less important. What is more important is how relevant you speak.
(A) How relevant you speak is …….
(B) How much you speak is as important …….
(C) How relevant you speak is not as important ……
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
15. You must submit a copy of your ration card. Only then your application for telephone connection will be considered.
(A) Unless you submit ……
(B) Unless your application for …….
(C) Without your application for …….
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and B
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
16. You need two tickets? Please stand in the queue.
(A) If you need ……
(B) In case you need …..
(C) Should you need …..
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
17. The quality of the fabric was not impressive. We changed our plan of purchasing.
(A) The quality of the fabric being ……
(B) We changed our …..
(C) In spite of the unimpressive …….
(l) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C
(4) A only
(5) All the three A, B and C
Ans. (1)
18. Madhuri has been consistent in her studies. Her performance in the examination was nothing else but excellent.
(A) Despite being consistent in her studies …….
(B Madhuri’s performance in the examination was not excellent because …….
(C) Because Madhuri was only consistent and not intelligent, her performance ……..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All the three A, B and C
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
19. Don’t add so much chilly powder to the soup. Consumers are only small children.
(A) Because small children do not allow chilly powder ……
(B) Since small children do not consume more soup …….
(C) Adding more chilly powder to. soup makes the small children like the …..
(1) None
(2) A only
(3) B only
(4) C only
(5) A and C only
Ans. (1)
20. He always delays in taking any action. It makes others suffer a lot.
(A) His taking action on time makes ……
(B) Other suffer a lot because of …..
(C) On account of his procrastination…..
(l) A, B and C
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and C only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
Directions (21-25) : In each question, there are three sentences denoted by
(A), (B) and (C). Find our which two or three sentences convey the same meanings. If all three sentences are different, mark 5 as the answer i.e. ‘all different’.
21. (A) The Manager would like you to help him locate the fault.
(B) If you help him locate the fault, the Manager would like you.
(C) The Manager desires that you should provide him the necessary assistance to locate the fault.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (3)
22. (A) Although the strike of transporters continues, I shall come.
(B) I shall come If the strike of transporters continues.
(C) Even though I come, the strike of transporters is going to continue.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
23. (A) Unlike the tribals who are hard working, the urban communities cannot withstand physical train.
(B) The tribals can withstand physical strain whereas urban communities cannot.
(C) Because the tribals are hardworking they can tolerate physical strain.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
24. (A) Should you need a visa you must submit an application along with your Passport and a copy of Income tax returns.
(B) Unless you do not submit an application along with your passport and “copy of income tax returns, you will not get visa”.
(C) If you submit your application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns you do not need visa.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
25. (A) The judge remarked that not all the accused were really guilty.
(B) The judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty while others were not.
(C) The judge remarked that all those who are accused include some who are not really guilty.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (4)
Directions (26-30): Each question is a set of 3 or 4 sentences which convey an idea. Of these, one or two is/are suppressed. To fill up the spaces of the suppressed sentence (s) two possible fillers denoted by (A) and (B) are given. Find out which one, two or none can fill up the space of the suppressed sentence (s) to make the paragraph meaningful and mark your answer accordingly.
26. As far as aircraft maintenance procedures are concerned, they are rigorous. (___)Such cases may end up in disastrous results, though exceptionally.
(A) All problems are immediately corrected on almost every occasion.
(B) Only due to urgency or want of aircraft for substitution, certain ones are overlooked.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
27. The interrogation lasted for about nine full working days (___). The judge observed that he was impressed with the outcome as the involvement of the accused in the crime was crystal clean.
(A) Hardly anything worth the name came out of such a marathon interrogation.
(B) The prosecution lawyer though in vain, had relentlessly applied all has wit to expose the accused.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
28. Auto riding is a very fascinating hobby (___). It is obvious that they consider the hobby more important that anything else.
(A) Low or even middle income group can’t afford it.
(B) I know many people who has missed many important cases or opportunities in autoriding
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
29. There is no doubt that we must befair and honest in all our dealings (___). What you really are is less important than what you are perceived by people around you.
(A) It means that perception assumes greater importance that reality
(B) But even more important is how you are perceived by others.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
30. The admiration for those who fight against corruption in high places has always been very spontaneous amongst the common people in India. They unhasitantly appreciate such acts but are afraid of openly doing so far fear of the higher ups.
(A) They hold such people in high esteem who make sacrifices on principles and moral issues.
(B) They make verbose speeches of admiration and appreciation of such acts.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
Solved LIC AO ADO Numerical Ability
Solved LIC AO ADO Numerical Ability
Solved Paper - Quantitative Aptitude: LIC Officers Exam
Directions ( 1-5) Find out the wrong number in the following given sequence.
1. 7 4 6 9 20 52.5 160.5
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 20
(4) 9
(5) 52.5
Ans. (1)
2. 4 6 12 30 75 315 1260
(1) 315
(2) 75
(3) 12
(4) 6
(5) 30
Ans. (2)
3. 3 4 13 38 87 166 289
(1) 38
(2) 13
(3) 87
(4) 166
(5) 4
Ans. (4)
4. 4 5 9 29 111 556 3325
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 29
(4) 111
(5) 556
Ans. (3)
5. 2 6 16 38 84 176 368
(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 38
(4) 84
(5) 176
Ans. (4)
6. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(1) 4kmph
(2) 6kmph
(3) 8 kmph
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
7. What approximate value should come in place of? in the following equation?
9876 ÷ 24.96 + 215.005-? = 309.99
(1) 395
(2) 295
(3) 300
(4) 315
(5) 310
Ans. (3)
8. Sunetra invested an amount of Rs. 50,000 to start a software business. After six months Nikhil joined her with an amount of Rs. 80,000. At the end of 3 years they earned a profit of Rs. 24, 500. What is Sunetra’s ‘share in the profit?
(1) Rs, 14,000
(2) Rs. 9423
(3) Rs. 10, 250
(4) Rs. 1. 50
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
9. Two girls and 4 boys are to be seated in row in such a way that the girls do not sit together. In how many different ways can it be done?
(1) 720
(2) 480
(3) 360
(4) 240
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. Average weight of three boys P, T and R is 54.33 kgs while the average weight of three boys. T, F and G are 53 kgs. What is the average weight of P. T, R, F and H?
(1) 53.8 kgs
(2) 52.4 kgs
(3) 53.2 kgs
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
11. If 2x + 3y + z = 55; x + z - y = 4 and y-x +z = 12 then what is the value of y?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 9
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
12. 405 sweets were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of sweets received by each child is 20% of the total no. of children. How many sweets did each child receive?
(1) 15
(2) 45
(3) 9
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
13. Sudharshan invested Rs. 15,000 at interest @ 10 p.c. p.a. for one year. If the interest is compounded every six months what amount will Sudharshan get at the end of the year?
(1) Rs. 16,537.50
(2) Rs. 16, 500
(3) Rs. 16, 525.50
(4) Rs. 18,150
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
14. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4: 7 respectively, lithe earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings of B decrease by 25% the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8 : 7 respectively what are A’s earnings?
(1) 26,000
(2) 28, 000
(3) 21,000
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
15. The wheat sold by grocer contained 10% low quality wheat. What quantity of good quality wheat should be added to 150 kgs of wheat so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?
(1) 150 kgs
(2) 135 kgs
(3) 50 kgs
(4) 85 kgs
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
Directions (16-20) Each of the questions consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the questions and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) Is/are necessary to answer the question.
16. What is the area of the hall?
I. Material cost of flooring per sq metre is 250
II. Labour cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 3, 500
III. Total cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 14,500
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) All I, II and III
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
17. What was the percentage of discount offered?
I. Profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 252 after giving discount was Rs. 52.
II. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been Rs.80.
III. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 40%.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and either I or III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I and either II or III only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
18. What is the speed of the train?
I. The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec.
II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 mts. in 27 seconds.
III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.
(1) I and II only
(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
19. What is the population of State ‘A’?
I. After increasing the population of State A by 15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B is 7: 8 respectively
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
(1) I only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and II only
(4) Either only I or II and III
(5) All I, II and III
Ans. (4)
20. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
III. One eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I only
(4) III only
(5) Any one of three
Ans. (5)
21. Salaries of A, B and C are in the ratio of 2: 3: 5 respectively. If their salaries were increased by 15%, 10% and 20% respectively what will be the new respective ratio of their salaries?
(1) 3: 3: 10
(2) 23: 33: 60
(3) 10: 11:20
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
22. If 3y + 2x = 47 and l1x = 7y then what is value of y — x?
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
23. If the digits of a two digit number are interchanged the newly formed number is more than the original number by 18, and sum of the digit is 8 then what was the original number?
(1) 53
(2) 26
(3) 35
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
24. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly equal. The number of the part which is not equal to the other four is the answer
(1) 136 x 12 ÷ 9 x 3 =
(2) 17 x 64 ÷ 6 x 3 =
(3) 36 x 17 ÷ 9 x 8
(4) 56 x 8 ÷ 14 x 17 =
(5) 76 x 6 ÷ 19 x 17
Ans. (5)
25. For which of the following values of x the Inequality x (x + 3) < 10 is satisfied? (1) x > 2, x < -5 (2) – 5 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
Solved Paper - Quantitative Aptitude: LIC Officers Exam
Directions ( 1-5) Find out the wrong number in the following given sequence.
1. 7 4 6 9 20 52.5 160.5
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 20
(4) 9
(5) 52.5
Ans. (1)
2. 4 6 12 30 75 315 1260
(1) 315
(2) 75
(3) 12
(4) 6
(5) 30
Ans. (2)
3. 3 4 13 38 87 166 289
(1) 38
(2) 13
(3) 87
(4) 166
(5) 4
Ans. (4)
4. 4 5 9 29 111 556 3325
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 29
(4) 111
(5) 556
Ans. (3)
5. 2 6 16 38 84 176 368
(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 38
(4) 84
(5) 176
Ans. (4)
6. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(1) 4kmph
(2) 6kmph
(3) 8 kmph
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
7. What approximate value should come in place of? in the following equation?
9876 ÷ 24.96 + 215.005-? = 309.99
(1) 395
(2) 295
(3) 300
(4) 315
(5) 310
Ans. (3)
8. Sunetra invested an amount of Rs. 50,000 to start a software business. After six months Nikhil joined her with an amount of Rs. 80,000. At the end of 3 years they earned a profit of Rs. 24, 500. What is Sunetra’s ‘share in the profit?
(1) Rs, 14,000
(2) Rs. 9423
(3) Rs. 10, 250
(4) Rs. 1. 50
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
9. Two girls and 4 boys are to be seated in row in such a way that the girls do not sit together. In how many different ways can it be done?
(1) 720
(2) 480
(3) 360
(4) 240
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. Average weight of three boys P, T and R is 54.33 kgs while the average weight of three boys. T, F and G are 53 kgs. What is the average weight of P. T, R, F and H?
(1) 53.8 kgs
(2) 52.4 kgs
(3) 53.2 kgs
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
11. If 2x + 3y + z = 55; x + z - y = 4 and y-x +z = 12 then what is the value of y?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 9
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
12. 405 sweets were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of sweets received by each child is 20% of the total no. of children. How many sweets did each child receive?
(1) 15
(2) 45
(3) 9
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
13. Sudharshan invested Rs. 15,000 at interest @ 10 p.c. p.a. for one year. If the interest is compounded every six months what amount will Sudharshan get at the end of the year?
(1) Rs. 16,537.50
(2) Rs. 16, 500
(3) Rs. 16, 525.50
(4) Rs. 18,150
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
14. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4: 7 respectively, lithe earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings of B decrease by 25% the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8 : 7 respectively what are A’s earnings?
(1) 26,000
(2) 28, 000
(3) 21,000
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
15. The wheat sold by grocer contained 10% low quality wheat. What quantity of good quality wheat should be added to 150 kgs of wheat so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?
(1) 150 kgs
(2) 135 kgs
(3) 50 kgs
(4) 85 kgs
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
Directions (16-20) Each of the questions consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the questions and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) Is/are necessary to answer the question.
16. What is the area of the hall?
I. Material cost of flooring per sq metre is 250
II. Labour cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 3, 500
III. Total cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 14,500
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) All I, II and III
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
17. What was the percentage of discount offered?
I. Profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 252 after giving discount was Rs. 52.
II. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been Rs.80.
III. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 40%.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and either I or III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I and either II or III only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
18. What is the speed of the train?
I. The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec.
II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 mts. in 27 seconds.
III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.
(1) I and II only
(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
19. What is the population of State ‘A’?
I. After increasing the population of State A by 15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B is 7: 8 respectively
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
(1) I only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and II only
(4) Either only I or II and III
(5) All I, II and III
Ans. (4)
20. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
III. One eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I only
(4) III only
(5) Any one of three
Ans. (5)
21. Salaries of A, B and C are in the ratio of 2: 3: 5 respectively. If their salaries were increased by 15%, 10% and 20% respectively what will be the new respective ratio of their salaries?
(1) 3: 3: 10
(2) 23: 33: 60
(3) 10: 11:20
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
22. If 3y + 2x = 47 and l1x = 7y then what is value of y — x?
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
23. If the digits of a two digit number are interchanged the newly formed number is more than the original number by 18, and sum of the digit is 8 then what was the original number?
(1) 53
(2) 26
(3) 35
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
24. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly equal. The number of the part which is not equal to the other four is the answer
(1) 136 x 12 ÷ 9 x 3 =
(2) 17 x 64 ÷ 6 x 3 =
(3) 36 x 17 ÷ 9 x 8
(4) 56 x 8 ÷ 14 x 17 =
(5) 76 x 6 ÷ 19 x 17
Ans. (5)
25. For which of the following values of x the Inequality x (x + 3) < 10 is satisfied? (1) x > 2, x < -5 (2) – 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
Maths objective questions on area perimeter and menstruation
Maths objective questions on area perimeter and menstruation
multiple choice questions on Perimeter and Area
MCQ on maths geometry area perimeter and menstruation
1. The length of a rectangle is 1 cm more than its width and its perimeter is 14 cm, then
the area of the rectangle is
(a) 16 cm2
(b) 14 cm2
(c) 12 cm2
(d) 10 cm2
Ans. (c)
2. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 1/3 rd and the width is decreased by 1/3rd , then
the area of the rectangle is decreased by the fraction.
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/8
Ans. (c)
3. A rectangular field 50 metres long and 42 metres broad contains a rectangular lawn
inside it surrounded by a gravel path of uniform width. If the width of the path is 6 m,
then the area of the path is
(a) 240 m2
(b) 480 m2
(c) 720 m2
(d) 960 m2
Ans. (d)
4. The cost of plastering the four walls of a room is Rs 25. The cost of plastering a room
twice in length, breadth and height will be
(a) Rs 50
(b) Rs 75
(c) Rs 100
(d) Rs 200
Ans. (c)
5. The sides of an equilateral triangle are (2a – b) cm, (a + 3b) cm and (2a – 2b + 1)
cm then the perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 21 cm
Ans. (d)
6. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Then its area is
(a) 0.0024 m2
(b) 0.0026 m2
(c) 0.003 m2
(d) 0.0015 m2
Ans. (c)
7. The area of a triangle, whose sides are 4 cm, l3 cm and 15 cm, is
(a) 21 cm2
(b) 24 cm2
(c) 48 cm2
(d) 56 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in integers and its area is also an integer. One
side is 21 cm and the perimeter is 48 cm, then the length of the shortest side is
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 14 cm
Ans. (b)
9. The diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm. Then the area of the rhombus is
(a) 64 cm2
(b) 100 cm2
(c) 80 cm2
(d) 40 cm2
Ans. (d)
10. The area of a parallelogram is 70 dm2 and its attitude is 7 dm, then the perimeter of a
rectangle of equal area standing on the same base is
(a) 40 dm
(b) 28 dm
(c) 34 dm
(d) 17 dm
Ans. (c)
11. If the radius of the circle is increased by 100%, then the area is increased by
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
Ans. (c)
12. If the difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm, then the
area of the circle is
(a) 111 cm2
(b) 148 cm2
(c) 259 cm2
(d) 154 cm2
Ans. (d)
13. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, then the area will be reduced by
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 12.5%
Ans. (c)
14. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and turned
into a sphere. The diameter of a sphere is
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.75 m
(c) 1.25 m
(d) 1.5 m
Ans. (c)
15. If a square and a circle have the same perimeter then
(a) the area of the circle is greater than that of square
(b) the area of the square is greater than that of circle
(c) the area of the square is l/? times that of the circle
(d) their areas are equal
Ans. (a)
16. A circular disc of radius 10 cm is divided into sectors with angles 120° and 150°, then
the ratio of the areas of two sectors is
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 8 : 7
Ans. (a)
17. Three metal cubes of volume 125 cm3, 64 cm3 and 27 cm3 are melted to form a new
cube, then the edge of the new cube formed is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans. (b)
18. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, then the percentage increase in the
surface area is
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300
Ans. (b)
19. A metal pipe has an external diameter of 4 cm and internal diameter of 3 cm and is
20cm long, then the volume, of the metal used is
(a) 22 cm3
(b) 110 cm3
(c) 220 cm3
(d) 440 cm3
Ans. (b)
20. A rectangular sheet of paper 22 cm long and 10 cm broad can be curved to form the
lateral surface area of a right circular cylinder in two ways. Then the difference
between the volumes of the two cylinders thus formed is
(a) 200 cm3
(b) 210 cm3
(c) 250 cm3
(d) 252 cm3
Ans. (b)
21. The height and base radius of a cone are each increased by 100%, then the volume of
the cone becomes
(a) double
(b) three times
(c) six times
(d) eight times
Ans. (d)
22. The radius of a sphere is increased by 50%, then the increase in surface area of a
sphere is
(a) 200%
(b) 150%
(c) 125%
(d) 50%
Ans. (c)
23. A right circular cone and a cylinder have a circle of unit radius as base and their
heights are equal to the radius itself and a hemisphere has the same radius, then their
volumes are proportional respectively to
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 3 : 2
Ans. (d)
24. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 3 cm. If the numerical values of the
area and the perimeter of the rectangle are equal, then the breadth of a rectangle will
be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 1 cm
(d) 5 cm
Ans. (b)
25. If the number of units in the circumference of a circle is same as the number of units
in the area, then the radius of the circle will be
(a) 1 unit
(b) 2 units
(c) 3 units
(d) 4 units
Ans. (b)
multiple choice questions on Perimeter and Area
MCQ on maths geometry area perimeter and menstruation
1. The length of a rectangle is 1 cm more than its width and its perimeter is 14 cm, then
the area of the rectangle is
(a) 16 cm2
(b) 14 cm2
(c) 12 cm2
(d) 10 cm2
Ans. (c)
2. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 1/3 rd and the width is decreased by 1/3rd , then
the area of the rectangle is decreased by the fraction.
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/8
Ans. (c)
3. A rectangular field 50 metres long and 42 metres broad contains a rectangular lawn
inside it surrounded by a gravel path of uniform width. If the width of the path is 6 m,
then the area of the path is
(a) 240 m2
(b) 480 m2
(c) 720 m2
(d) 960 m2
Ans. (d)
4. The cost of plastering the four walls of a room is Rs 25. The cost of plastering a room
twice in length, breadth and height will be
(a) Rs 50
(b) Rs 75
(c) Rs 100
(d) Rs 200
Ans. (c)
5. The sides of an equilateral triangle are (2a – b) cm, (a + 3b) cm and (2a – 2b + 1)
cm then the perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 21 cm
Ans. (d)
6. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Then its area is
(a) 0.0024 m2
(b) 0.0026 m2
(c) 0.003 m2
(d) 0.0015 m2
Ans. (c)
7. The area of a triangle, whose sides are 4 cm, l3 cm and 15 cm, is
(a) 21 cm2
(b) 24 cm2
(c) 48 cm2
(d) 56 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in integers and its area is also an integer. One
side is 21 cm and the perimeter is 48 cm, then the length of the shortest side is
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 14 cm
Ans. (b)
9. The diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm. Then the area of the rhombus is
(a) 64 cm2
(b) 100 cm2
(c) 80 cm2
(d) 40 cm2
Ans. (d)
10. The area of a parallelogram is 70 dm2 and its attitude is 7 dm, then the perimeter of a
rectangle of equal area standing on the same base is
(a) 40 dm
(b) 28 dm
(c) 34 dm
(d) 17 dm
Ans. (c)
11. If the radius of the circle is increased by 100%, then the area is increased by
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
Ans. (c)
12. If the difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm, then the
area of the circle is
(a) 111 cm2
(b) 148 cm2
(c) 259 cm2
(d) 154 cm2
Ans. (d)
13. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, then the area will be reduced by
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 12.5%
Ans. (c)
14. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and turned
into a sphere. The diameter of a sphere is
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.75 m
(c) 1.25 m
(d) 1.5 m
Ans. (c)
15. If a square and a circle have the same perimeter then
(a) the area of the circle is greater than that of square
(b) the area of the square is greater than that of circle
(c) the area of the square is l/? times that of the circle
(d) their areas are equal
Ans. (a)
16. A circular disc of radius 10 cm is divided into sectors with angles 120° and 150°, then
the ratio of the areas of two sectors is
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 8 : 7
Ans. (a)
17. Three metal cubes of volume 125 cm3, 64 cm3 and 27 cm3 are melted to form a new
cube, then the edge of the new cube formed is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans. (b)
18. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, then the percentage increase in the
surface area is
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300
Ans. (b)
19. A metal pipe has an external diameter of 4 cm and internal diameter of 3 cm and is
20cm long, then the volume, of the metal used is
(a) 22 cm3
(b) 110 cm3
(c) 220 cm3
(d) 440 cm3
Ans. (b)
20. A rectangular sheet of paper 22 cm long and 10 cm broad can be curved to form the
lateral surface area of a right circular cylinder in two ways. Then the difference
between the volumes of the two cylinders thus formed is
(a) 200 cm3
(b) 210 cm3
(c) 250 cm3
(d) 252 cm3
Ans. (b)
21. The height and base radius of a cone are each increased by 100%, then the volume of
the cone becomes
(a) double
(b) three times
(c) six times
(d) eight times
Ans. (d)
22. The radius of a sphere is increased by 50%, then the increase in surface area of a
sphere is
(a) 200%
(b) 150%
(c) 125%
(d) 50%
Ans. (c)
23. A right circular cone and a cylinder have a circle of unit radius as base and their
heights are equal to the radius itself and a hemisphere has the same radius, then their
volumes are proportional respectively to
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 3 : 2
Ans. (d)
24. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 3 cm. If the numerical values of the
area and the perimeter of the rectangle are equal, then the breadth of a rectangle will
be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 1 cm
(d) 5 cm
Ans. (b)
25. If the number of units in the circumference of a circle is same as the number of units
in the area, then the radius of the circle will be
(a) 1 unit
(b) 2 units
(c) 3 units
(d) 4 units
Ans. (b)
LIC PRevious paper of ADO :English language 2010
LIC PRevious paper of ADO :English language 2010
Previous Year LIC ADO Recruitment Solved English Language
LIC ADO Solved Question Papers Book and Questions
Directions (1-5): In each question ,a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type are given. One of them or both of them may have a certain error. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among the four choices given be low each sentence to replace the incorrect words/group of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) i.e.. ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
1. RBI has asked banks that disclose the fees and commissions they have earned through the sell of life insurance policies.
(1) disclosure — selling
(2) disclosed — sell
(3) to disclose — sale
(4) can disclose — sales
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
2. Our Development Officer is very encourage and helps me do whatever is necessity to achieve my goals.
(1) encouraging — necessary
(2) encouraged - necessarily
(3) encourages — necessary
(4) encouraging — necessities
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
3. According to experts, the Indian banking system is better that of every developed countries.
(1) very good — any
(2) best - much
(3) more better — all
(4) better than - many
(5) No correction required
Ans. (4)
4. People should be buying health insurance at a young age and maintains it for a lifetime.
(1 be bought-maintain
(2) buy - maintain
(3) have bought - be maintaining
(4) not buy - will maintain
(5) No correction required
Ans. (2)
5 Life Insurance companies have appointed around 13 lakhs agents during 2008O9 despite the recession.
(1) nearly — because
(2) about — inspite
(3) approximate — on account
(4) almost — In
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
Directions (6-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Most of the world’s healthcare is financed directly by governments, but private insurance, which now makes up nearly a fifth of the total, looks set for a state-sponsored boom in the hope of solving problems in national systems of healthcare which include inadequate access to care and soaring costs.
In most countries state-financed healthcare is not available to all, so governments want private insurance to .be expanded to cover everyone. The most prominent effort is underway in America, where about 47 million lack health insurance of any kind. This effort is similar to reforms undertaken over the past decade in the Netherlands and Switzerland. To ensure equitable access, both countries forbid private insurers from discriminating against applicants because they are in poor health or at high risk of falling ill. This practice is known as “lemon dropping”.
A tightly regulated expansion of private Insurance-in effect turning health insurance into a utility - can thus expand coverage, This is also likely be true in developing countries, whose public healthcare systems are often hopelessly overstretched and underfunded, although because poor countries cannot afford the subsidies and regulatory mechanism of the rich world, coverage is likely to be confined to the better off.
The second reason why governments have turned to private insurance is cost control. The hope was that by ruthlessly tackling costs and promoting efficiency, market-minded insurers would help rein in runaway health inflation where governments could not. Whatever the role played in. a health system, private health insurance has added to total health expenses. it is no coincidence, that the countries with the biggest private health-insurance sectors-America, France, Germany and Switzerland - also have some of the highest healthcare costs per person.
There are several explanations for this Because a third party pays the bill, the true cost of health services is rarely made clear to them. Nor is the true price of insurance, especially if coverage is provided through an employer . This encourages over-insurance and overconsumption of healthcare. Another incentive problem also arises from lack of transparent pricing. Stud les have shown that the fees for similar procedures vary widely among hospitals in the same area. Because hospitals and doctors both decide on the services patients must have and dictate the price of those services, they often enjoy a powerful informational advantage over insurers. Thus doctors and hospitals have an informational advantage and an incentive to oversupply their services.
6. Why do governments look to private insurers to reduce inflation in the healthcare system?
(A) Private health insurance companies are professionally managed.
(B) It is in the interest of the private Insurers to do so
(C) Their pricing system does not reveal the hidden costs in healthcare.
(l) Only B (2) Only C
(3) Only B and C
(4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
7. Which of the following is a problem facing healthcare system in developing countries?
(1) Quality healthcare is available only in private hospitals.
(2) Constant government interference in the system,
(3) Healthcare facilities are insufficient and often made available only to the rich.
(4) Subsidizing healthcare has resulted in many hospitals becoming loss making.
(5) Profitable hospitals are forced to bail out loss making ones.
Ans. (3)
8. Which of the following is TRUE about private health insurance?
(A) According to prevailing laws, private health• insurers can cater to only 20 percent of the population.
(B) In western countries private health Insurance is unregulated by the government.
(C) Most governments are now encouraging the participation of private companies in providing healthcare.
(l) Only A and C
(2) Only C
(3) Only A and B
(4) All A, B and C
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
9. What does the phrase “over consumption of healthcare’ convey in the context of the passage?
(1) People opt for unnecessary medical treatments because they do not have to pay for It.
(2) Healthcare consumes too much of a nation’s budget in developed countries.
(3) Government hospitals often recommend unnecessary procedures for patients.
(4) In developing countries, the healthcare system cannot cope with the demands of their population.
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
10. Why did the government of Switzerland prohibit the practice of lemon dropping?
(1) To reduce the profits of private health insurers.
(2) To facilitate equitable access to all its citizens.
(3) To prevent discrimination against the poor.
(4) To ensure that America’s healthcare system problems do not occur in theirs.
(5) To cut the cost of healthcare per person.
Ans. (2)
11. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?
(1) Convincing governments to restrict private sector participation in health care.
(2) Criticizing developing countries for the efforts to reform their health care systems.
(3) Pointing out the advantages of adopting European healthcare reforms in developing countries.
(4) Elaborating the pros and cons of private sector participation in health insurance
(5) Stating that state interference in health insurance is undesirable.
Ans. (4)
12.. What impact has the lack of transparency In pricing had on healthcare costs?
(1) Patients have become key decision ‘makers in the treatment process.
(2) Medical personnel do not get uniform Incentives.
(3) Insurers and doctors conspire to charge exorbitant fees for treatment.
(4) Well off patients often end up with huge subsidies from hospitals.
(5) Doctors and hospitals have an informational advantage and an incentive to over-supply their services
Ans. (5)
Directions (13-14): Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
13. CONFINED
(1) Captured
(2) Locked
(3) Detained
(4) Limited
(5) Imprisoned
Ans. (4)
14. COVER
(1) Conceal
(2) Hide
(3) Suppress
(4) Bury
(5) Include
Ans. (5)
15. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word CONTROL given in bold as used in the passage?
(1) Permit
(2) Obey
(3) Supremacy
(4) Powerless
(5) Increase
Ans. (5)
Directions (16-20) Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in.the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) After all India’s expected equipment requirement in the next five years will be huge, next only to China’s.
(B) Indian cellular equipment manufacturers however were not prepared for this surge in demand.
(C) In the 1990s cellular wireless telecom services in India were liberalized.
(D) To make Indian telecom manufacturers more self-sufficient, concrete step need to be taken to increase India’s R & b efforts in telecom.
(E) This resulted ma decrease in tariffs and the volume of cell phone subscribers grew phenomenally.
(F) Their lack of preparedness gave foreign players the opportunity to step in.
16. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(l) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Ans. (3)
17. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Ans. (1)
18. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2).B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Ans. (3)
19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(4) 0
(5) E
Ans. (2)
20. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) 0
(4) E
(5) F
Ans. (4)
21. RBI is ____ about the fact that many banks are ____ in mutual funds.
(1) concerned, investing
(2) worried, shared
(3) sad, credited
(4) interested, stocking
(5) anxious, lending
Ans. (1)
22. The high ___ of land in cities is one of the greatest in providing affordable housing.
(1) worth, boost.
(2) quality, decisions
(3) value, prevention
(4) cost, hindrances
(5) price, trouble
Ans. (4)
23. Today over ____ a million farmer households in India do not have ___ to banks.
(1) less need
(2) more, opportunity
(3) half, access
(4) extent, contribution
(5) partly, approach
Ans. (3)
24. Nowadays many general insurance products are through bank
(1) selling, networking
(2) distributed, branches
(3) disburse, personnel
(4) available, agent
(5) loaned., channel
Ans. (2)
25. To empower those living in rural areas NGOs are ___ self help groups and youth in vocational subjects.
(1) realising, working
(2) developing, taught
(3) emerging, instructing
(4) creating, learning
(5) forming, training
Ans. (5)
Previous Year LIC ADO Recruitment Solved English Language
LIC ADO Solved Question Papers Book and Questions
Directions (1-5): In each question ,a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type are given. One of them or both of them may have a certain error. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among the four choices given be low each sentence to replace the incorrect words/group of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) i.e.. ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
1. RBI has asked banks that disclose the fees and commissions they have earned through the sell of life insurance policies.
(1) disclosure — selling
(2) disclosed — sell
(3) to disclose — sale
(4) can disclose — sales
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
2. Our Development Officer is very encourage and helps me do whatever is necessity to achieve my goals.
(1) encouraging — necessary
(2) encouraged - necessarily
(3) encourages — necessary
(4) encouraging — necessities
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
3. According to experts, the Indian banking system is better that of every developed countries.
(1) very good — any
(2) best - much
(3) more better — all
(4) better than - many
(5) No correction required
Ans. (4)
4. People should be buying health insurance at a young age and maintains it for a lifetime.
(1 be bought-maintain
(2) buy - maintain
(3) have bought - be maintaining
(4) not buy - will maintain
(5) No correction required
Ans. (2)
5 Life Insurance companies have appointed around 13 lakhs agents during 2008O9 despite the recession.
(1) nearly — because
(2) about — inspite
(3) approximate — on account
(4) almost — In
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
Directions (6-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Most of the world’s healthcare is financed directly by governments, but private insurance, which now makes up nearly a fifth of the total, looks set for a state-sponsored boom in the hope of solving problems in national systems of healthcare which include inadequate access to care and soaring costs.
In most countries state-financed healthcare is not available to all, so governments want private insurance to .be expanded to cover everyone. The most prominent effort is underway in America, where about 47 million lack health insurance of any kind. This effort is similar to reforms undertaken over the past decade in the Netherlands and Switzerland. To ensure equitable access, both countries forbid private insurers from discriminating against applicants because they are in poor health or at high risk of falling ill. This practice is known as “lemon dropping”.
A tightly regulated expansion of private Insurance-in effect turning health insurance into a utility - can thus expand coverage, This is also likely be true in developing countries, whose public healthcare systems are often hopelessly overstretched and underfunded, although because poor countries cannot afford the subsidies and regulatory mechanism of the rich world, coverage is likely to be confined to the better off.
The second reason why governments have turned to private insurance is cost control. The hope was that by ruthlessly tackling costs and promoting efficiency, market-minded insurers would help rein in runaway health inflation where governments could not. Whatever the role played in. a health system, private health insurance has added to total health expenses. it is no coincidence, that the countries with the biggest private health-insurance sectors-America, France, Germany and Switzerland - also have some of the highest healthcare costs per person.
There are several explanations for this Because a third party pays the bill, the true cost of health services is rarely made clear to them. Nor is the true price of insurance, especially if coverage is provided through an employer . This encourages over-insurance and overconsumption of healthcare. Another incentive problem also arises from lack of transparent pricing. Stud les have shown that the fees for similar procedures vary widely among hospitals in the same area. Because hospitals and doctors both decide on the services patients must have and dictate the price of those services, they often enjoy a powerful informational advantage over insurers. Thus doctors and hospitals have an informational advantage and an incentive to oversupply their services.
6. Why do governments look to private insurers to reduce inflation in the healthcare system?
(A) Private health insurance companies are professionally managed.
(B) It is in the interest of the private Insurers to do so
(C) Their pricing system does not reveal the hidden costs in healthcare.
(l) Only B (2) Only C
(3) Only B and C
(4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
7. Which of the following is a problem facing healthcare system in developing countries?
(1) Quality healthcare is available only in private hospitals.
(2) Constant government interference in the system,
(3) Healthcare facilities are insufficient and often made available only to the rich.
(4) Subsidizing healthcare has resulted in many hospitals becoming loss making.
(5) Profitable hospitals are forced to bail out loss making ones.
Ans. (3)
8. Which of the following is TRUE about private health insurance?
(A) According to prevailing laws, private health• insurers can cater to only 20 percent of the population.
(B) In western countries private health Insurance is unregulated by the government.
(C) Most governments are now encouraging the participation of private companies in providing healthcare.
(l) Only A and C
(2) Only C
(3) Only A and B
(4) All A, B and C
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
9. What does the phrase “over consumption of healthcare’ convey in the context of the passage?
(1) People opt for unnecessary medical treatments because they do not have to pay for It.
(2) Healthcare consumes too much of a nation’s budget in developed countries.
(3) Government hospitals often recommend unnecessary procedures for patients.
(4) In developing countries, the healthcare system cannot cope with the demands of their population.
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
10. Why did the government of Switzerland prohibit the practice of lemon dropping?
(1) To reduce the profits of private health insurers.
(2) To facilitate equitable access to all its citizens.
(3) To prevent discrimination against the poor.
(4) To ensure that America’s healthcare system problems do not occur in theirs.
(5) To cut the cost of healthcare per person.
Ans. (2)
11. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?
(1) Convincing governments to restrict private sector participation in health care.
(2) Criticizing developing countries for the efforts to reform their health care systems.
(3) Pointing out the advantages of adopting European healthcare reforms in developing countries.
(4) Elaborating the pros and cons of private sector participation in health insurance
(5) Stating that state interference in health insurance is undesirable.
Ans. (4)
12.. What impact has the lack of transparency In pricing had on healthcare costs?
(1) Patients have become key decision ‘makers in the treatment process.
(2) Medical personnel do not get uniform Incentives.
(3) Insurers and doctors conspire to charge exorbitant fees for treatment.
(4) Well off patients often end up with huge subsidies from hospitals.
(5) Doctors and hospitals have an informational advantage and an incentive to over-supply their services
Ans. (5)
Directions (13-14): Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
13. CONFINED
(1) Captured
(2) Locked
(3) Detained
(4) Limited
(5) Imprisoned
Ans. (4)
14. COVER
(1) Conceal
(2) Hide
(3) Suppress
(4) Bury
(5) Include
Ans. (5)
15. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word CONTROL given in bold as used in the passage?
(1) Permit
(2) Obey
(3) Supremacy
(4) Powerless
(5) Increase
Ans. (5)
Directions (16-20) Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in.the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) After all India’s expected equipment requirement in the next five years will be huge, next only to China’s.
(B) Indian cellular equipment manufacturers however were not prepared for this surge in demand.
(C) In the 1990s cellular wireless telecom services in India were liberalized.
(D) To make Indian telecom manufacturers more self-sufficient, concrete step need to be taken to increase India’s R & b efforts in telecom.
(E) This resulted ma decrease in tariffs and the volume of cell phone subscribers grew phenomenally.
(F) Their lack of preparedness gave foreign players the opportunity to step in.
16. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(l) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Ans. (3)
17. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Ans. (1)
18. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2).B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Ans. (3)
19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(4) 0
(5) E
Ans. (2)
20. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) 0
(4) E
(5) F
Ans. (4)
21. RBI is ____ about the fact that many banks are ____ in mutual funds.
(1) concerned, investing
(2) worried, shared
(3) sad, credited
(4) interested, stocking
(5) anxious, lending
Ans. (1)
22. The high ___ of land in cities is one of the greatest in providing affordable housing.
(1) worth, boost.
(2) quality, decisions
(3) value, prevention
(4) cost, hindrances
(5) price, trouble
Ans. (4)
23. Today over ____ a million farmer households in India do not have ___ to banks.
(1) less need
(2) more, opportunity
(3) half, access
(4) extent, contribution
(5) partly, approach
Ans. (3)
24. Nowadays many general insurance products are through bank
(1) selling, networking
(2) distributed, branches
(3) disburse, personnel
(4) available, agent
(5) loaned., channel
Ans. (2)
25. To empower those living in rural areas NGOs are ___ self help groups and youth in vocational subjects.
(1) realising, working
(2) developing, taught
(3) emerging, instructing
(4) creating, learning
(5) forming, training
Ans. (5)
Solved LIC ADO paper Numerical Ability Questions memeory based
Solved LIC ADO paper Numerical Ability Questions memeory based
LIC ADO Recruitment Exam Solved Paper numerical Ability
Free Exam Original Paper: LIC (ADO) 2010 NUMERICAL ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1. 99 ÷9 ÷ 0.5 =?
(1) 5.5
(2) 11
(3) 4.5
(4) 22
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
2. 82.8 x 643.6 ÷ 5121.4 =8?
(1) 5.8
(2) 14.2
(3) 8.6
(4) 9.2
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
3. 24% of 550 - ?%, of 124 = 76.2
(1) 45
(2) 30
(3) 50
(4) 35
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
4. 24.5 x 45.4x 2.5 =?
(1) 2880.25
(2) 2780.75
(3) 2770.75
(4) 2870.25
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
5. (1305/4)÷9=?
(1) 64.5
(2) 24.75
(3) 36.25
(4) 72.5
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
6. 2.5 x? =824.2
(1) 333.864
(2) 3-29.68.
(3) 337.-4
(4) 324.48
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
7. 416 x 18 - 2288 =?
(1) 5202
(2) 5000
(3) 5205
(4) 5002
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
8. 54% of 675 =?
(1) 307.5
(2) 346.5
(3) 370.5
(4) 364.5
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
9. 888.88 + 684.48 + 726.66 =?
(1) 2230.02
(2) 2030.02
(3) 2003.02
(4) 2302.02
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
10. 3960 ÷ (48 x 2.5) =?
(1) 206.25
(2) 42
(3) 33
(4) 260.25
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
11. A car covers a distance of 720 kms in 12 hours. What is the average speed of the car?
(1) 60 kmph
(2) 40 kmph
(3) 55 kmph
(4) 75 kmph
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
12. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customer 18% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.10, 207 for a dining table, then what was the original price of the dining table?
(1) Rs.9, 240
(2) Rs.8, 650
(3) Rs.9, 840
(4) Rs.7, 670
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
13. The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. The ratio of their ages is 4: 1 respectively. What is the son’s age?
(1) 12 years
(2) 14 years
(3) 16 years
(4) 24 years
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
14. What is the least number to be added to 2400 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 100
(2) 191
(3) 201
(4) 96
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
15. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 2,840 at tie rate of 15 p.c.p.a. after 2 years?
(1) Rs. 905.5
(2) Rs. 951.5
(3) Rs. 928.9
(4) Rs. 915.9
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
16. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 2303. What is the greater number?
(1) 45
(2) 47
(3) 51
(4) 49
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
17. The difference between 31% of a number and 11% of the number is 360. What is 23% of that number?
(1) 426
(2) 414
(3) 408
(4) 432
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
18. A canteen requires 22 dozen apples for seven days. How many dozen apples will it require for 336 days?
(1) 1104
(2) 1128
(3) 1056
(4) 1047
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
19. In an examination It is required to get 750 of the aggr8gate marks to pass. A student gets 700 marks and IS declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(1) 1050
(2) 1140
(3) 1250
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
20. The cost of 4 watches arid 2 lockets is Rs. 1 0,800. What is the cost of 6 watches and 3 lockets?
(1) Rs.18, 400
(2)Rs.15, 850
(3) Rs.12, 600
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
DIrections Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
21. In which organisation did the number of people being recruited increase each year?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
22. What i the respective ratio between the total number of people recruited by organisation A in the years 2008 and 2009 together to those recruited by organisation F in the years 2004 and 2005 together .
(1) 7:6
(2) 5:4.
(3) 6:7
(4) 4:5
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
23. Number of people recruited by organisation E in the year 2007 is approximately what percent of the total number of people recruited by that organisation over all the years together?
(1) 8
(2) 15
(3) 3
(4) 25
(5) 28
Ans. (2)
24. What is the total number of people recruited from all the organisation together in the year 2005?
(1) 1990
(2) 1230
(3) 1240
(4) 1200
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
25. What is the percent increase in the number of people recruited by organisation D in the year 2006 from the previous year?
(1) 43.75
(2) 38.25
(3) 45.75
(4) 46.25
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
LIC ADO Recruitment Exam Solved Paper numerical Ability
Free Exam Original Paper: LIC (ADO) 2010 NUMERICAL ABILITY SOLVED PAPER
1. 99 ÷9 ÷ 0.5 =?
(1) 5.5
(2) 11
(3) 4.5
(4) 22
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
2. 82.8 x 643.6 ÷ 5121.4 =8?
(1) 5.8
(2) 14.2
(3) 8.6
(4) 9.2
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
3. 24% of 550 - ?%, of 124 = 76.2
(1) 45
(2) 30
(3) 50
(4) 35
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
4. 24.5 x 45.4x 2.5 =?
(1) 2880.25
(2) 2780.75
(3) 2770.75
(4) 2870.25
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
5. (1305/4)÷9=?
(1) 64.5
(2) 24.75
(3) 36.25
(4) 72.5
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
6. 2.5 x? =824.2
(1) 333.864
(2) 3-29.68.
(3) 337.-4
(4) 324.48
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
7. 416 x 18 - 2288 =?
(1) 5202
(2) 5000
(3) 5205
(4) 5002
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
8. 54% of 675 =?
(1) 307.5
(2) 346.5
(3) 370.5
(4) 364.5
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
9. 888.88 + 684.48 + 726.66 =?
(1) 2230.02
(2) 2030.02
(3) 2003.02
(4) 2302.02
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
10. 3960 ÷ (48 x 2.5) =?
(1) 206.25
(2) 42
(3) 33
(4) 260.25
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
11. A car covers a distance of 720 kms in 12 hours. What is the average speed of the car?
(1) 60 kmph
(2) 40 kmph
(3) 55 kmph
(4) 75 kmph
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
12. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customer 18% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.10, 207 for a dining table, then what was the original price of the dining table?
(1) Rs.9, 240
(2) Rs.8, 650
(3) Rs.9, 840
(4) Rs.7, 670
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
13. The average age of a man and his son is 30 years. The ratio of their ages is 4: 1 respectively. What is the son’s age?
(1) 12 years
(2) 14 years
(3) 16 years
(4) 24 years
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
14. What is the least number to be added to 2400 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 100
(2) 191
(3) 201
(4) 96
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
15. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 2,840 at tie rate of 15 p.c.p.a. after 2 years?
(1) Rs. 905.5
(2) Rs. 951.5
(3) Rs. 928.9
(4) Rs. 915.9
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
16. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 2303. What is the greater number?
(1) 45
(2) 47
(3) 51
(4) 49
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
17. The difference between 31% of a number and 11% of the number is 360. What is 23% of that number?
(1) 426
(2) 414
(3) 408
(4) 432
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
18. A canteen requires 22 dozen apples for seven days. How many dozen apples will it require for 336 days?
(1) 1104
(2) 1128
(3) 1056
(4) 1047
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
19. In an examination It is required to get 750 of the aggr8gate marks to pass. A student gets 700 marks and IS declared failed by 4% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(1) 1050
(2) 1140
(3) 1250
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
20. The cost of 4 watches arid 2 lockets is Rs. 1 0,800. What is the cost of 6 watches and 3 lockets?
(1) Rs.18, 400
(2)Rs.15, 850
(3) Rs.12, 600
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
DIrections Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
21. In which organisation did the number of people being recruited increase each year?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
22. What i the respective ratio between the total number of people recruited by organisation A in the years 2008 and 2009 together to those recruited by organisation F in the years 2004 and 2005 together .
(1) 7:6
(2) 5:4.
(3) 6:7
(4) 4:5
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
23. Number of people recruited by organisation E in the year 2007 is approximately what percent of the total number of people recruited by that organisation over all the years together?
(1) 8
(2) 15
(3) 3
(4) 25
(5) 28
Ans. (2)
24. What is the total number of people recruited from all the organisation together in the year 2005?
(1) 1990
(2) 1230
(3) 1240
(4) 1200
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
25. What is the percent increase in the number of people recruited by organisation D in the year 2006 from the previous year?
(1) 43.75
(2) 38.25
(3) 45.75
(4) 46.25
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
Solved previous paper Questions LIC ADO exam held in June 2010
Solved previous paper Questions LIC ADO exam held in June 2010
All these questions are memory based and are from previous paper of LIC ADO exam
Reasoning ability from LIC ADO exam
LIC ADO Question Papers
LIC Exam Pattern
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet’?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (4)
2. D is sister of F, M is brother of F. K is brother of D and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Son or daughter
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
3. The positions of how many digits in the number 839614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (1)
4. In a certain bode ‘STAGE’ is written as ‘4@©9’ and ‘EARN’ is written as 9©87. How is ‘NEST’ written in fat code?
(1) 497@
(2) 794@
(3) @©79
(4) 79@©
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
5. In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code
(1) DQBERSH
(2) FSDCTUJ
(3) DQBETUJ
(4) FSDCRSH
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
Directions 6-10): Study. the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
H 3 $ E K 5 @ M % 1 8 2 T A F 6 W I © N V * P 4 Q ? R D Z
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) FAW
(2) N©*
(3) 4P?
(4) M@I
(5) $EH
Ans. (5)
7. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (4)
8. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(1) 2
(2) ©
(3) 8
(4) 6
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
9. If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the fourteenth from the right end?
(1) T
(2) K
(3) N
(4) P
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. How many such numbers are the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (5)
Q(11-15 )In following questions some symbols have been used to indicate relationship between elements as given below
‘P© Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than or equal to Q
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’,n-ieans ‘P is not smaller than Q
‘P % Q’ mea,s ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion( ss/are definitely’ true?
11. Statements:
R%T, T © K, K $ M, M @ V
Conclusions: I. M © T
II. R©K
III. K $ V
(1) None is true
(2) Only I and II are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) Only I and III are true
(5) All I, II and III are true
Ans. (3)
12. Statements:
W $ N, N © R, R @ K, K % F
Conclusions: I. F * R
II. R $ W
III.N © K
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only I and III are true
Ans. (1)
13. Statements:
F @ M, M % W, W $ R, R © V
Conclusions: I. V $ M
II. F $ W
III. R © F
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only I and III are true
Ans. (1)
14. Statements:
B $ D, D@ M, M % K, K©R
Conclusions: I. R $ M
II. K @ D
III. B $ M
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
15. Statements:
N @ W, W * K, K ©V, V $ F
Conclusions: I. K * N
II. K©N
III. F©W
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) Only either I or II is true
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
Directions (16—20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S. T, V. W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. S is second to the right of V who is third to the right of T. Q is second to the left of T and fourth to the right of Z.W is third to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of T.
16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which Is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) ZRV
(2) SPQ
(3) VZP
(4) TWR
(5) QWT
Ans. (5)
17. Who is to the immediate left of W?
(1) Q
(2) T
(3) S
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
18. Who Is Second to the left of R?
(1) T
(2) Q
(3) W
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
19. Who is fourth to the left of P?
(1) R
(2) Z
(3) W
(5) Data inadequate
Ans. (4)
20. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
(1) SQ
(2) TW
(3) ZV
(4) PS
(5) QW
Ans. (2)
Directions (21-25) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for Selecting Manager - Accounts in an organization.
The candidate must:
(1) be at least 28 years and not more than 33 years as on 01,06.2010.
(ii) be. a graduate with at least 55 percent marks.
(ill) be a post graduate degree diploma holder in financial management with atleast 60 percent marks.
(iv)M ust have post qualification experience of at least seven years in the Finance department of an organization.
(v) have secured 40 per cent marks in the personal interview.
In the case of a- candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT:
(A) at (iii) above but has completed CA/ICWA/CFA after his/her graduation, the case is to be referred to Executive Director — Finance.
(B) at (v) above but has secured at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview and at least 65 per cent marks in graduation, the case is to be referred to General Manager - Finance.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided In each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.06.2010.
21. Subodh Saha has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his post graduate degree in financial Management with 60 percent marks. He has secured percent marks in graduation and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born On 8th May1984.
Ans. (4)
22. Abhiram Gupta was born on 8th. July 1980. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past nine years- after-completing his post graduation degree in financial management with 68- per cent marks. He has secured 37 per cent marks in personal interview and 70 per cent marks in graduation.
Ans. (2)
23. Suchitra Kulkarni has been working in the finance departt4nt of an organisation for the past eight years. She was born on 12th April 1979. She has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduate diploma in financial management. She-has also secured 50 per cent marks in personal interview.
Ans. (3)
24. Atul Sangma was born on 24th March 190.He has secured 45 per cent marks in the personal Interview and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the seven years after completing his post graduate degree in Financial Management with 65 percent marks.
Ans. (3)
25. Neha Juneja was born on 4th September 1981. She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her ICWA after obtaining 58 per cent marks In graduation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the personal interview.
Ans. (1)
All these questions are memory based and are from previous paper of LIC ADO exam
Reasoning ability from LIC ADO exam
LIC ADO Question Papers
LIC Exam Pattern
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSFER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet’?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (4)
2. D is sister of F, M is brother of F. K is brother of D and son of T. R is wife of T. How is F related to T?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Son or daughter
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
3. The positions of how many digits in the number 839614 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (1)
4. In a certain bode ‘STAGE’ is written as ‘4@©9’ and ‘EARN’ is written as 9©87. How is ‘NEST’ written in fat code?
(1) 497@
(2) 794@
(3) @©79
(4) 79@©
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
5. In a certain code TRILOGY is written as HQSMXFN. How is CREDITS written in that code
(1) DQBERSH
(2) FSDCTUJ
(3) DQBETUJ
(4) FSDCRSH
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
Directions 6-10): Study. the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
H 3 $ E K 5 @ M % 1 8 2 T A F 6 W I © N V * P 4 Q ? R D Z
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) FAW
(2) N©*
(3) 4P?
(4) M@I
(5) $EH
Ans. (5)
7. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (4)
8. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(1) 2
(2) ©
(3) 8
(4) 6
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
9. If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the fourteenth from the right end?
(1) T
(2) K
(3) N
(4) P
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. How many such numbers are the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans. (5)
Q(11-15 )In following questions some symbols have been used to indicate relationship between elements as given below
‘P© Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than or equal to Q
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’,n-ieans ‘P is not smaller than Q
‘P % Q’ mea,s ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion( ss/are definitely’ true?
11. Statements:
R%T, T © K, K $ M, M @ V
Conclusions: I. M © T
II. R©K
III. K $ V
(1) None is true
(2) Only I and II are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) Only I and III are true
(5) All I, II and III are true
Ans. (3)
12. Statements:
W $ N, N © R, R @ K, K % F
Conclusions: I. F * R
II. R $ W
III.N © K
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only I and III are true
Ans. (1)
13. Statements:
F @ M, M % W, W $ R, R © V
Conclusions: I. V $ M
II. F $ W
III. R © F
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only I and III are true
Ans. (1)
14. Statements:
B $ D, D@ M, M % K, K©R
Conclusions: I. R $ M
II. K @ D
III. B $ M
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
15. Statements:
N @ W, W * K, K ©V, V $ F
Conclusions: I. K * N
II. K©N
III. F©W
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) Only either I or II is true
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
Directions (16—20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S. T, V. W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. S is second to the right of V who is third to the right of T. Q is second to the left of T and fourth to the right of Z.W is third to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of T.
16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which Is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) ZRV
(2) SPQ
(3) VZP
(4) TWR
(5) QWT
Ans. (5)
17. Who is to the immediate left of W?
(1) Q
(2) T
(3) S
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
18. Who Is Second to the left of R?
(1) T
(2) Q
(3) W
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
19. Who is fourth to the left of P?
(1) R
(2) Z
(3) W
(5) Data inadequate
Ans. (4)
20. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
(1) SQ
(2) TW
(3) ZV
(4) PS
(5) QW
Ans. (2)
Directions (21-25) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for Selecting Manager - Accounts in an organization.
The candidate must:
(1) be at least 28 years and not more than 33 years as on 01,06.2010.
(ii) be. a graduate with at least 55 percent marks.
(ill) be a post graduate degree diploma holder in financial management with atleast 60 percent marks.
(iv)M ust have post qualification experience of at least seven years in the Finance department of an organization.
(v) have secured 40 per cent marks in the personal interview.
In the case of a- candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT:
(A) at (iii) above but has completed CA/ICWA/CFA after his/her graduation, the case is to be referred to Executive Director — Finance.
(B) at (v) above but has secured at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview and at least 65 per cent marks in graduation, the case is to be referred to General Manager - Finance.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided In each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.06.2010.
21. Subodh Saha has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his post graduate degree in financial Management with 60 percent marks. He has secured percent marks in graduation and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born On 8th May1984.
Ans. (4)
22. Abhiram Gupta was born on 8th. July 1980. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past nine years- after-completing his post graduation degree in financial management with 68- per cent marks. He has secured 37 per cent marks in personal interview and 70 per cent marks in graduation.
Ans. (2)
23. Suchitra Kulkarni has been working in the finance departt4nt of an organisation for the past eight years. She was born on 12th April 1979. She has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduate diploma in financial management. She-has also secured 50 per cent marks in personal interview.
Ans. (3)
24. Atul Sangma was born on 24th March 190.He has secured 45 per cent marks in the personal Interview and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the seven years after completing his post graduate degree in Financial Management with 65 percent marks.
Ans. (3)
25. Neha Juneja was born on 4th September 1981. She has been working in the Finance department of an organisation for the past eight years after completing her ICWA after obtaining 58 per cent marks In graduation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the personal interview.
Ans. (1)
english grammar Objective questions and Answers MCQ Quiz
english grammar Objective questions and Answers MCQ Quiz
Beginning English Multiple Choice Test
Grammar multiple choice questions ...
Directions—In question below , the sentences has been given in Active/Passive Voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate your correct answer.
1. Someone pulled the bull violently. .
(A) The bull had been pulled violently by someone.
(B) The bull was to be pulled violently by someone.
(C) The bull had been pulled violently.
(D) The bull was pulled violently.
Ans. (D)
Directions—In questions 2-6, a part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
2. If I am the P.M. I would ban all processions.
(A) will be
(B) were
(C) am
(D) no improvement
Ans. (B)
3. Mrs. Madhuri has great respect and unlimited faith in her Director.
(A) respect and unlimited faith for
(B) respect for and unlimited faith for
(C) respect for and unlimited faith in
(D) respect in and unlimited faith for
Ans. (C)
4. He is addicted to smoke.
(A) addicted to smoking
(B) used to smoke
(C) addicted of smoking
(D) addicted with smoking
Ans. (A)
5. Write down the address lest you may forget.
(A) you may not forget
(B) you cannot forget
(C) you will forget
(D) you should forget
Ans. (D)
6. We used to get up early in the morning, have breakfast and then went out to play.
(A) go out to play
(B) gone out to play
(C) had gone out to play
(D) played
Ans. (D)
Directions—In questions 7-11, choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold and indicate your correct answer.
7. Transparent
(A) Clear
(B) Ambiguity
(C) Opaque
(D) Crystal
Ans. (B)
8. Encountered
(A) Avoided
(B) Enriched
(C) Faced
(D) Overcome
Ans. (A)
9. Handy
(A) Cumbersome
(B) Handful
(C) Unwieldy
(D) Heavy
Ans. (D)
10. Elegance
(A) Pride
(B) Beauty
(C) Coarseness
(D) Vulgarity
Ans. (D)
11. Capricious
(A) Firm
(B) Fickle
(C) Indefinite
(D) Defiant
Ans. (A)
Directions—In questions Nos. 12—21, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is rightly spelt. Find the word and indicate your correct answer.
12. (A) Entirty
(B) Gratious
(C) Discern
(D) Contestent
Ans. (C)
13. (A) Reminiscence
(B) Renounciation
(C) Recolection
(D) Relaxasion
Ans. (A)
14. (A) Scenary
(B) Granery
(C) Visionary
(D) Luminery
Ans. (C)
15. (A) Colaborate
(B) Coroborate
(C) Cooperate
(D) Colocate
Ans. (C)
16. (A) Fulifil
(B) Ill will
(C) Fabbulous
(D) Usefull
Ans. (B)
17. (A) Receprocate
(B) Recieve
(C) Recetation
(D) Receipt
Ans. (D)
18. (A) Traveling
(B) Remitance
(C) Kidnaping
(D) Equitable
Ans. (D)
19. (A) Necessary
(B) Temparory
(C) Itinerary
(D) Sanguinery
Ans. (C)
20. (A) Psycholagy
(B) Appology
(C) Criminolegy
(D) Archaeology
Ans. (D)
21. (A) Asociate
(B) Intigrate
(C) Appropriate
(D) Exhilerate
Ans. (C)
Fill in the blanks
22. We shall finish the work before he ....... back.
(A) would come
(B) comes
(C) will come
(D) shall come
Ans. (B)
23. His supporters began to .......... and he was left alone.
(A) fall off
(B) fall up
(C) fall out
(D) fall away
Ans. (A)
24. I devote much of my time ......... writing.
(A) in
(B) to
(C) on
(D) at
Ans. (B)
25. There was an understanding ......... the two.
(A) in
(B) between
(C) within
(D) among
Ans. (B)
26. He ............ her for a long time-before he finally decided to marry her.
(A) knew
(B) has known
(C) had known
(D) will have known
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 27-): In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence.
27. Murder of newborn child—
(A) Homicide
(B) Regicide
(C) Fatricide
(D) Infanticide
Ans. (D)
28. A person who hates women—
(A) Misanthropist
(B) Masochist
(C) Misogynist
(D) Misogamist
Ans. (C)
29. A sea abounding in islands—
(A) Strait
(B) Archipelago
(C) Ocean
(D) Gulf
Ans. (B)
30. Changing one’s mind too quickly—
(A) Adaptability
(B) Instability
(C) Versatility
(D) Vacillation
Ans. (B)
31. A person’s first speech—
(A) Preface
(B) Maiden
(C) Opener
(D) Extempore
Ans. (B)
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom / phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which Best Expresses the Meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct response.
32. My repeated attempts to get refund from the civic authorities were of no avail.
(A) Unsuccessful
(B) Postponed
(C) Useless
(D) Delayed
Ans. (A)
33. He was progressing by leaps and bounds because of his hard work.
(A) Rapidly
(B) Slowly
(C) Peacefully
(D) Strongly
Ans. (A)
34. To emerge out of thin air means to.
(A) Appear suddenly
(B) Descend gradually
(C) Fall down quickly
(D) Enter from space
Ans. (A)
35. The news of the accident came as a bolt from the blue.
(A) Something unexpected
(B) Something unpleasant
(C) Something horrible
(D) Something unexpected and unpleasant
Ans. (D)
Beginning English Multiple Choice Test
Grammar multiple choice questions ...
Directions—In question below , the sentences has been given in Active/Passive Voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate your correct answer.
1. Someone pulled the bull violently. .
(A) The bull had been pulled violently by someone.
(B) The bull was to be pulled violently by someone.
(C) The bull had been pulled violently.
(D) The bull was pulled violently.
Ans. (D)
Directions—In questions 2-6, a part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
2. If I am the P.M. I would ban all processions.
(A) will be
(B) were
(C) am
(D) no improvement
Ans. (B)
3. Mrs. Madhuri has great respect and unlimited faith in her Director.
(A) respect and unlimited faith for
(B) respect for and unlimited faith for
(C) respect for and unlimited faith in
(D) respect in and unlimited faith for
Ans. (C)
4. He is addicted to smoke.
(A) addicted to smoking
(B) used to smoke
(C) addicted of smoking
(D) addicted with smoking
Ans. (A)
5. Write down the address lest you may forget.
(A) you may not forget
(B) you cannot forget
(C) you will forget
(D) you should forget
Ans. (D)
6. We used to get up early in the morning, have breakfast and then went out to play.
(A) go out to play
(B) gone out to play
(C) had gone out to play
(D) played
Ans. (D)
Directions—In questions 7-11, choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the word given in bold and indicate your correct answer.
7. Transparent
(A) Clear
(B) Ambiguity
(C) Opaque
(D) Crystal
Ans. (B)
8. Encountered
(A) Avoided
(B) Enriched
(C) Faced
(D) Overcome
Ans. (A)
9. Handy
(A) Cumbersome
(B) Handful
(C) Unwieldy
(D) Heavy
Ans. (D)
10. Elegance
(A) Pride
(B) Beauty
(C) Coarseness
(D) Vulgarity
Ans. (D)
11. Capricious
(A) Firm
(B) Fickle
(C) Indefinite
(D) Defiant
Ans. (A)
Directions—In questions Nos. 12—21, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is rightly spelt. Find the word and indicate your correct answer.
12. (A) Entirty
(B) Gratious
(C) Discern
(D) Contestent
Ans. (C)
13. (A) Reminiscence
(B) Renounciation
(C) Recolection
(D) Relaxasion
Ans. (A)
14. (A) Scenary
(B) Granery
(C) Visionary
(D) Luminery
Ans. (C)
15. (A) Colaborate
(B) Coroborate
(C) Cooperate
(D) Colocate
Ans. (C)
16. (A) Fulifil
(B) Ill will
(C) Fabbulous
(D) Usefull
Ans. (B)
17. (A) Receprocate
(B) Recieve
(C) Recetation
(D) Receipt
Ans. (D)
18. (A) Traveling
(B) Remitance
(C) Kidnaping
(D) Equitable
Ans. (D)
19. (A) Necessary
(B) Temparory
(C) Itinerary
(D) Sanguinery
Ans. (C)
20. (A) Psycholagy
(B) Appology
(C) Criminolegy
(D) Archaeology
Ans. (D)
21. (A) Asociate
(B) Intigrate
(C) Appropriate
(D) Exhilerate
Ans. (C)
Fill in the blanks
22. We shall finish the work before he ....... back.
(A) would come
(B) comes
(C) will come
(D) shall come
Ans. (B)
23. His supporters began to .......... and he was left alone.
(A) fall off
(B) fall up
(C) fall out
(D) fall away
Ans. (A)
24. I devote much of my time ......... writing.
(A) in
(B) to
(C) on
(D) at
Ans. (B)
25. There was an understanding ......... the two.
(A) in
(B) between
(C) within
(D) among
Ans. (B)
26. He ............ her for a long time-before he finally decided to marry her.
(A) knew
(B) has known
(C) had known
(D) will have known
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 27-): In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence.
27. Murder of newborn child—
(A) Homicide
(B) Regicide
(C) Fatricide
(D) Infanticide
Ans. (D)
28. A person who hates women—
(A) Misanthropist
(B) Masochist
(C) Misogynist
(D) Misogamist
Ans. (C)
29. A sea abounding in islands—
(A) Strait
(B) Archipelago
(C) Ocean
(D) Gulf
Ans. (B)
30. Changing one’s mind too quickly—
(A) Adaptability
(B) Instability
(C) Versatility
(D) Vacillation
Ans. (B)
31. A person’s first speech—
(A) Preface
(B) Maiden
(C) Opener
(D) Extempore
Ans. (B)
In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom / phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which Best Expresses the Meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct response.
32. My repeated attempts to get refund from the civic authorities were of no avail.
(A) Unsuccessful
(B) Postponed
(C) Useless
(D) Delayed
Ans. (A)
33. He was progressing by leaps and bounds because of his hard work.
(A) Rapidly
(B) Slowly
(C) Peacefully
(D) Strongly
Ans. (A)
34. To emerge out of thin air means to.
(A) Appear suddenly
(B) Descend gradually
(C) Fall down quickly
(D) Enter from space
Ans. (A)
35. The news of the accident came as a bolt from the blue.
(A) Something unexpected
(B) Something unpleasant
(C) Something horrible
(D) Something unexpected and unpleasant
Ans. (D)
Solved Indian History test
Solved Indian History test
History Sample Test Paper Solved 1. The British Government declared to leave India in any case before June, 1948 in—
(A) 1946A.D.
(B) February 1947 A.D.
(C) April 1947 A.D.
(D) June 1947 A.D.
Ans. (A)
2. The Muslim league demanded a separate home land for the Indian Muslims openly for the first time at its annual session
held in Lahore in the year—
(A) 1938A.D.
(B) 1939A.D.
(C) 1940A.D.
(D) 1941A.D.
Ans. (C)
3. Match List—I with List—II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List—I
(Congress sessions)
(a) Lucknow session, 1916
(b) Lahore session, 1929
(c) Karachi session, 1931
(d) Faizpur session, 1936
List—II
(Ideological formulations)
1. Full Democracy
2. Congress-League Pact
3. Puma Swaraj Resolutions
4. Adoption of Fundamental Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (B)
4. Which of the following reasons intensified the labour movements in India in the Frist Quarter of the 20th Centuary?
1. Influenëe of British Labour Movement
2. Russian Revolution of 1917
3. Rise in cost of living
4. Legislative measures of the British against Indian labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans. (A)
5. According to the Cabinet Mission an Interim National Government was formed at the Centre and the Constituent Assembly
held its First Session on—
(A) 9 December, 1946
(B) 8 December, 1946
(C) 7 December, 1946
(D) 6 December, 1946
Ans. (A)
6. Who among the following is considered to be the father of the Idea of Pakistan?
(A) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(B) Rahmat Ali
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmad Khan
Ans. (A)
7. Consider the following passage :
“His records proclaim him as a feudatory of the emperor Somesvara III. He was his capitals at Talakad in the South and Bankpura in
the North. It was in A. D. 1137 that he performed the great ceremony of Tulapurusha.”
The above passage refers to —
(A) Mayursarman
(B) Ananta Varman Chodaganga
(C) Yayati Mahashivgupta-I
(D) Vishnuvardhana
Ans. (D)
8. “Service was his portion in life”. This was applicable to —
(A) Buddhist Bhikshu
(B) Vaisya Varna
(C) Sudra Varna
(D) Chandala
Ans. (C)
9. Megasthenese States —”There was no slavery in India.” This statement must have been made because —
(A) There was absence of slavery in India
(B) Slavery was not prevalent in India in the extreme from as he be had seen in Greece
(C) He moved only with the king and elites in the capital
(D) He work this on hearsay
Ans. (B)
10. “Amongst his great nobles he (the king) was so predominant that none dare lift his head too high but with the humble classes he
was benevolent and debonair, willingly giving them audience and hearing their petitions. He was pleased to accept their presents,
taking them into his hands and holding them to his breast.”
Consider the question given above and indicate who it is attributed to and who was the king referred to in it —
(A) Monserrate — Akbar
(B) Tavernier — Jahangir
(C) Fitch — Shahjahan
(D) Hawkings — Aurangazeb
Ans. (A)
11. “Why should the neglected state of this land create uneasiness in our minds and why should we expend our money and time to
vender it fruitful ? We may be deprived of it in a single moment, and our exertions would benefit neither ourselves nor our
children.”
The above statement was made by —
(A) Akbar
(B) Monserrate
(C) Tavernier
(D) Bernier
Ans. (D)
12. The statement that “If by worshipping stones one can find God, I shall worship a mountain”, was made by —
(A) Ramananda
(B) Namdev
(C) Guru Nanak
(D) Kabir
Ans. (D)
13. “I issue such order to the people as I consider to be beneficial for them and the State. I do not know whether they are permitted by
the Shariat or not”. This was said by —
(A) Jalaluddin Khilji
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
(D) Muhammad Tughluq
Ans. (B)
14. “No one is allowed to marry outside his own caste, or to exchange are profession or trade for another or to follow more than
business.” This observation was made by —
(A) Megasthenese
(B) Fa Hien
(C) Hiuen-Tsaing
(D) Alberuni
Ans. (D)
15. Every pearl in the Royal crown is but the crystallized drop of blood fallen from the tearful eyes of the Poor Peasant.
The above remark about the poverty of the Indian Peasants during the Delhi sultanate was made by —
(A) Ziauddin Barani
(B) Ibn Batuta
(C) Minhajuddin Siraj
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans. (B)
16. “Decay is inherent in all component beings. Work out your own salvation with deligence.” These words are attributed to —
(A) Krishna
(B) Mahavira
(C) The Buddha
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans. (C)
17. “There was little sympathy in spite of loud professions of loyalty. Moderate and extremist alike learnt with satisfaction of German
Victories. There was no love for Germany of course, only the desire to see our rulers humbled.” Who among the following wrote
this?
(A) C.R.Das
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Ravindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (B)
18. Panchsheel was declared by India and China in—
(A) 1952A.D.
(B) 1953A.D.
(C) 1954A.D.
(D) 1955A.D.
Ans. (C)
`9. Who worked for the upliftment of Ezhavazas in Kerla in 20th century?
(A) Naicker
(B) Narayan Guru
(C) C .N. Annadurai
(D) C. Raju
Ans. (B)
20. The university Grants Commission was constituted in 1953 A.D. which among the followmg first recommended for it?
(A) The Hartog Committee 1929.A.D.
(B) Sargeant Plan of Education, 1944 AD.
(C) Radha Krishan Commission, 1948—49 AD.
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
21. Which one was not a principle of the Panchsheel?
(A) World peace and International Co-operation
(B) Respect for each other’s Territory and Sovereignty
(C) Non-aggression
(D) Equality and Mutual benefit
Ans. (A)
22. The first tri-colour flag was hoisted on—
(A) 3lstJanauary, 1928
(B) 31st December, 1929
(C) 26th January, 1950
(D) 15th August, 1947
Ans. (B)
23. Who were the leaders of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Mohd. Ali
(B) Shaukat Ali
(C) Both of them
(D) Neither of them
Ans. (C)
24. What was the net gain of Non-co-operation Movement?
(A) Removed fear of the Britishers from the minds of the people
(B) Weakened the British government
(C) Brought National Unity
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
25. How did the British Government react to the Wardha Resolution?
(A) They gave their counter proposals
(B) They banned the Congress party
(C) The leaders were arrested
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
26. Which, among the following, Round Table Conferences held in London, was attended by M.K. Gandhi as the sole representative
of the Congress?
(A) 1st in 1930 A.D.
(B) 2nd in 193l A.D.
(C) 3rd in 1932 A.D.
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
27. Who was the first Muslim to preside over the session of Indian National Congres?
(A) Badruddin Tyaibji
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Liaqat Ali
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmed Khan
Ans. (A)
28. Which among the following, Indians Political parties, decided to co-operate with the working of the Simon Commission?
(A) The Hindu Mahasabha
(B) All India Muslim league
(C) National Liberal Federation
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
29. On 23rd ‘March 1940. The Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Hyderabad session
(B) Karachi session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)
30. The “call of deliverance day” was given by—
(A) The Muslim League
(B) The Congress
(C) The Hindu Mahasabha
(D) The Communist Party
Ans. (A)
31. In which year All India Muslim League was founded?
(A) 1904A.D.
(B) 1905A.D.
(C) 1906A.D.
(D) 1909A.D.
Ans. (C)
32. On 23rd March 1940, the Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Karachi session
(B) Hyderabad session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)
33. 1951, Saw the biggest peasant guerrilla war so for the Modern Indian History—
(A) Bombay
(B) Noakhali
(C) Tebhaga
(D) Telengana
Ans. (D)
34. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
(A) Lord Wavell
(B) Sir Stafford Cripps
(C) Lord Pethic-Lowrence
(D) A.V. Alexander
Ans. (A)
35. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in the year —
(A) 1932
(B) 1930
(C) 1932
(D) 1925
Ans. (B)
History Sample Test Paper Solved 1. The British Government declared to leave India in any case before June, 1948 in—
(A) 1946A.D.
(B) February 1947 A.D.
(C) April 1947 A.D.
(D) June 1947 A.D.
Ans. (A)
2. The Muslim league demanded a separate home land for the Indian Muslims openly for the first time at its annual session
held in Lahore in the year—
(A) 1938A.D.
(B) 1939A.D.
(C) 1940A.D.
(D) 1941A.D.
Ans. (C)
3. Match List—I with List—II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:
List—I
(Congress sessions)
(a) Lucknow session, 1916
(b) Lahore session, 1929
(c) Karachi session, 1931
(d) Faizpur session, 1936
List—II
(Ideological formulations)
1. Full Democracy
2. Congress-League Pact
3. Puma Swaraj Resolutions
4. Adoption of Fundamental Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (B)
4. Which of the following reasons intensified the labour movements in India in the Frist Quarter of the 20th Centuary?
1. Influenëe of British Labour Movement
2. Russian Revolution of 1917
3. Rise in cost of living
4. Legislative measures of the British against Indian labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans. (A)
5. According to the Cabinet Mission an Interim National Government was formed at the Centre and the Constituent Assembly
held its First Session on—
(A) 9 December, 1946
(B) 8 December, 1946
(C) 7 December, 1946
(D) 6 December, 1946
Ans. (A)
6. Who among the following is considered to be the father of the Idea of Pakistan?
(A) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(B) Rahmat Ali
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmad Khan
Ans. (A)
7. Consider the following passage :
“His records proclaim him as a feudatory of the emperor Somesvara III. He was his capitals at Talakad in the South and Bankpura in
the North. It was in A. D. 1137 that he performed the great ceremony of Tulapurusha.”
The above passage refers to —
(A) Mayursarman
(B) Ananta Varman Chodaganga
(C) Yayati Mahashivgupta-I
(D) Vishnuvardhana
Ans. (D)
8. “Service was his portion in life”. This was applicable to —
(A) Buddhist Bhikshu
(B) Vaisya Varna
(C) Sudra Varna
(D) Chandala
Ans. (C)
9. Megasthenese States —”There was no slavery in India.” This statement must have been made because —
(A) There was absence of slavery in India
(B) Slavery was not prevalent in India in the extreme from as he be had seen in Greece
(C) He moved only with the king and elites in the capital
(D) He work this on hearsay
Ans. (B)
10. “Amongst his great nobles he (the king) was so predominant that none dare lift his head too high but with the humble classes he
was benevolent and debonair, willingly giving them audience and hearing their petitions. He was pleased to accept their presents,
taking them into his hands and holding them to his breast.”
Consider the question given above and indicate who it is attributed to and who was the king referred to in it —
(A) Monserrate — Akbar
(B) Tavernier — Jahangir
(C) Fitch — Shahjahan
(D) Hawkings — Aurangazeb
Ans. (A)
11. “Why should the neglected state of this land create uneasiness in our minds and why should we expend our money and time to
vender it fruitful ? We may be deprived of it in a single moment, and our exertions would benefit neither ourselves nor our
children.”
The above statement was made by —
(A) Akbar
(B) Monserrate
(C) Tavernier
(D) Bernier
Ans. (D)
12. The statement that “If by worshipping stones one can find God, I shall worship a mountain”, was made by —
(A) Ramananda
(B) Namdev
(C) Guru Nanak
(D) Kabir
Ans. (D)
13. “I issue such order to the people as I consider to be beneficial for them and the State. I do not know whether they are permitted by
the Shariat or not”. This was said by —
(A) Jalaluddin Khilji
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
(D) Muhammad Tughluq
Ans. (B)
14. “No one is allowed to marry outside his own caste, or to exchange are profession or trade for another or to follow more than
business.” This observation was made by —
(A) Megasthenese
(B) Fa Hien
(C) Hiuen-Tsaing
(D) Alberuni
Ans. (D)
15. Every pearl in the Royal crown is but the crystallized drop of blood fallen from the tearful eyes of the Poor Peasant.
The above remark about the poverty of the Indian Peasants during the Delhi sultanate was made by —
(A) Ziauddin Barani
(B) Ibn Batuta
(C) Minhajuddin Siraj
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans. (B)
16. “Decay is inherent in all component beings. Work out your own salvation with deligence.” These words are attributed to —
(A) Krishna
(B) Mahavira
(C) The Buddha
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans. (C)
17. “There was little sympathy in spite of loud professions of loyalty. Moderate and extremist alike learnt with satisfaction of German
Victories. There was no love for Germany of course, only the desire to see our rulers humbled.” Who among the following wrote
this?
(A) C.R.Das
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Ravindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (B)
18. Panchsheel was declared by India and China in—
(A) 1952A.D.
(B) 1953A.D.
(C) 1954A.D.
(D) 1955A.D.
Ans. (C)
`9. Who worked for the upliftment of Ezhavazas in Kerla in 20th century?
(A) Naicker
(B) Narayan Guru
(C) C .N. Annadurai
(D) C. Raju
Ans. (B)
20. The university Grants Commission was constituted in 1953 A.D. which among the followmg first recommended for it?
(A) The Hartog Committee 1929.A.D.
(B) Sargeant Plan of Education, 1944 AD.
(C) Radha Krishan Commission, 1948—49 AD.
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
21. Which one was not a principle of the Panchsheel?
(A) World peace and International Co-operation
(B) Respect for each other’s Territory and Sovereignty
(C) Non-aggression
(D) Equality and Mutual benefit
Ans. (A)
22. The first tri-colour flag was hoisted on—
(A) 3lstJanauary, 1928
(B) 31st December, 1929
(C) 26th January, 1950
(D) 15th August, 1947
Ans. (B)
23. Who were the leaders of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Mohd. Ali
(B) Shaukat Ali
(C) Both of them
(D) Neither of them
Ans. (C)
24. What was the net gain of Non-co-operation Movement?
(A) Removed fear of the Britishers from the minds of the people
(B) Weakened the British government
(C) Brought National Unity
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
25. How did the British Government react to the Wardha Resolution?
(A) They gave their counter proposals
(B) They banned the Congress party
(C) The leaders were arrested
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
26. Which, among the following, Round Table Conferences held in London, was attended by M.K. Gandhi as the sole representative
of the Congress?
(A) 1st in 1930 A.D.
(B) 2nd in 193l A.D.
(C) 3rd in 1932 A.D.
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
27. Who was the first Muslim to preside over the session of Indian National Congres?
(A) Badruddin Tyaibji
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Liaqat Ali
(D) Sir Syaid Ahmed Khan
Ans. (A)
28. Which among the following, Indians Political parties, decided to co-operate with the working of the Simon Commission?
(A) The Hindu Mahasabha
(B) All India Muslim league
(C) National Liberal Federation
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
29. On 23rd ‘March 1940. The Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Hyderabad session
(B) Karachi session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)
30. The “call of deliverance day” was given by—
(A) The Muslim League
(B) The Congress
(C) The Hindu Mahasabha
(D) The Communist Party
Ans. (A)
31. In which year All India Muslim League was founded?
(A) 1904A.D.
(B) 1905A.D.
(C) 1906A.D.
(D) 1909A.D.
Ans. (C)
32. On 23rd March 1940, the Pakistan Resolution was passed by the All India Muslim League at its —
(A) Karachi session
(B) Hyderabad session
(C) Lahore session
(D) Lucknow session
Ans. (C)
33. 1951, Saw the biggest peasant guerrilla war so for the Modern Indian History—
(A) Bombay
(B) Noakhali
(C) Tebhaga
(D) Telengana
Ans. (D)
34. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
(A) Lord Wavell
(B) Sir Stafford Cripps
(C) Lord Pethic-Lowrence
(D) A.V. Alexander
Ans. (A)
35. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in the year —
(A) 1932
(B) 1930
(C) 1932
(D) 1925
Ans. (B)
Biology MCQ
Biology MCQ
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions Quiz
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: Biology mcq quiz
Free Online Multiple choice Solved Questions Biology
1. The chief role of nucleolus in a nucleus concerns
(a) Organization of chromosome.
(b) Ribosome synthesis
(c) Chromatid separation
(d) DNA replication
Ans. (b)
2. The word chromosome was given by
(a) Johannsen
(b) Waldeyer
(c) Benda
(d) Flemming
Ans. (b)
3. Chromosomes are concerned with
(a) Respiration
(b) Assimilation
(c) Transmission of hereditary-characters
(d) Nutrition
Ans. (c)
4. The centromere of a chromosome is also called
(a) Satellite
(b) Primary constriction
(c) Secondary constriction
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)
5. A telocentric chromosome differs from an acrocentric chromosome in that
(a) The former has a sub terminal centrally located centromere
(b) The centromere in the former is terminal and latter has medially located centromere
(c) The former has sub terminal centromere and the latter has medially located centromere
(d) The former has terminal and the latter has sub terminal centromere
Ans. (d)
6. The principal protein of cilia and flagella is
(a) Tubulin
(b) Albumin
(c) Globulin
(d) Actin
Ans. (a)
7. In cell transport the difference between permeable transport and bulk transport relates to
(a) Structure of molecules allowed to pass through
(b) Solvent system as well as structure of molecules is applicable
(c) Molecular weight of atoms allowed passing through
(d) Solvent system is applicable
Ans. (a)
8. Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Vacuole
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (b)
9. The term mitosis was given by
(a) Farmer
(b) Flemming
(c) Boveri
(d) Moore
Ans. (b)
10. The sequence in the cell cycle is
(a) S, G1, G2, M
(b) S, M, G1, G2
(c) G1, S, G2, M
(d) G2, S, M, G2
Ans. (c)
11. Which is the shortest phase in the cell cycle?
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) S2
(d) M
Ans. (d)
12. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
(a) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA
(b) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA
(c) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA
(d) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and same amount of DNA
Ans. (d)
13. The role of mitosis is not merely to divide a cell into two daughter cells but to ensure genetic continuity from one cell generation to another cell generation. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity is
(a) Formation of cells with new chromosomes
(b) Formation of two daughter cells
(c) Formation of two cells with identical DNA
(d) Halving the chromosome number between the two new cells
Ans. (c)
14. If cells in process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
(a) Anaphase
(b) Prophase
(c) Telophase
(d) Metaphase
Ans. (d)
15. A stage of mitosis in which chromosomes get arranged in the form of an equatorial plate in the centre of a dividing cell is called
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)
16. During mitosis, metaphase differs from anaphase in having
(a) Same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(b) Half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(c) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(d) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
Ans. (c)
17. In which phase of mitosis the chromatids of chromosomes separate from eacb other?
(a) Anaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Metaphase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)
18. The phragmoplast is organised
(a) At the beginning of anaphase
(b) At the end of anaphase
(c) At the beginning of telophase
(d) At the end of telophase
Ans. (b)
19. How many divisions must occur in a cell of root tip to form 128 cells?
(a) 128
(b) 127
(c) 64
(d) 3
Ans. (b)
20. The difference in the division of a plant cell and animal cell is in
(a) Spindle formation
(b) Cell plate formation
(c) Movement of chromosomes from the equatorial plane
(d) Coiling of the chromosomes
Ans. (b)
21. Meiosis involves
(a) One division of nucleus and one division of chromosome
(b) Two divisions of nucleus and one division of chromosome
(c) One division of nucleus and two divisions of chromosome
(d) Two divisions of nucleus and two divisions of chromosome
Ans. (b)
22. Which is the longest stage of meiotic division?
(a) Prophase
(b) 11etaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (a)
23. During meiosis, crossing over occurs at
(a) Diplotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diakinesis
Ans. (c)
24. At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated?
(a) Prophase II
(b) Prophase I
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Anaphase II
Ans. (c)
25. The minimum number of meiotic divisions required to obtain 100 pollen grains of wheat
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 150
Ans. (a)
Biology - Online Multiple Choice Questions Quiz
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: Biology mcq quiz
Free Online Multiple choice Solved Questions Biology
1. The chief role of nucleolus in a nucleus concerns
(a) Organization of chromosome.
(b) Ribosome synthesis
(c) Chromatid separation
(d) DNA replication
Ans. (b)
2. The word chromosome was given by
(a) Johannsen
(b) Waldeyer
(c) Benda
(d) Flemming
Ans. (b)
3. Chromosomes are concerned with
(a) Respiration
(b) Assimilation
(c) Transmission of hereditary-characters
(d) Nutrition
Ans. (c)
4. The centromere of a chromosome is also called
(a) Satellite
(b) Primary constriction
(c) Secondary constriction
(d) Centriole
Ans. (b)
5. A telocentric chromosome differs from an acrocentric chromosome in that
(a) The former has a sub terminal centrally located centromere
(b) The centromere in the former is terminal and latter has medially located centromere
(c) The former has sub terminal centromere and the latter has medially located centromere
(d) The former has terminal and the latter has sub terminal centromere
Ans. (d)
6. The principal protein of cilia and flagella is
(a) Tubulin
(b) Albumin
(c) Globulin
(d) Actin
Ans. (a)
7. In cell transport the difference between permeable transport and bulk transport relates to
(a) Structure of molecules allowed to pass through
(b) Solvent system as well as structure of molecules is applicable
(c) Molecular weight of atoms allowed passing through
(d) Solvent system is applicable
Ans. (a)
8. Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Vacuole
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (b)
9. The term mitosis was given by
(a) Farmer
(b) Flemming
(c) Boveri
(d) Moore
Ans. (b)
10. The sequence in the cell cycle is
(a) S, G1, G2, M
(b) S, M, G1, G2
(c) G1, S, G2, M
(d) G2, S, M, G2
Ans. (c)
11. Which is the shortest phase in the cell cycle?
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) S2
(d) M
Ans. (d)
12. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
(a) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA
(b) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA
(c) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA
(d) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and same amount of DNA
Ans. (d)
13. The role of mitosis is not merely to divide a cell into two daughter cells but to ensure genetic continuity from one cell generation to another cell generation. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity is
(a) Formation of cells with new chromosomes
(b) Formation of two daughter cells
(c) Formation of two cells with identical DNA
(d) Halving the chromosome number between the two new cells
Ans. (c)
14. If cells in process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
(a) Anaphase
(b) Prophase
(c) Telophase
(d) Metaphase
Ans. (d)
15. A stage of mitosis in which chromosomes get arranged in the form of an equatorial plate in the centre of a dividing cell is called
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (b)
16. During mitosis, metaphase differs from anaphase in having
(a) Same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(b) Half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
(c) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
(d) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
Ans. (c)
17. In which phase of mitosis the chromatids of chromosomes separate from eacb other?
(a) Anaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Metaphase
(d) Prophase
Ans. (c)
18. The phragmoplast is organised
(a) At the beginning of anaphase
(b) At the end of anaphase
(c) At the beginning of telophase
(d) At the end of telophase
Ans. (b)
19. How many divisions must occur in a cell of root tip to form 128 cells?
(a) 128
(b) 127
(c) 64
(d) 3
Ans. (b)
20. The difference in the division of a plant cell and animal cell is in
(a) Spindle formation
(b) Cell plate formation
(c) Movement of chromosomes from the equatorial plane
(d) Coiling of the chromosomes
Ans. (b)
21. Meiosis involves
(a) One division of nucleus and one division of chromosome
(b) Two divisions of nucleus and one division of chromosome
(c) One division of nucleus and two divisions of chromosome
(d) Two divisions of nucleus and two divisions of chromosome
Ans. (b)
22. Which is the longest stage of meiotic division?
(a) Prophase
(b) 11etaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Ans. (a)
23. During meiosis, crossing over occurs at
(a) Diplotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diakinesis
Ans. (c)
24. At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated?
(a) Prophase II
(b) Prophase I
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Anaphase II
Ans. (c)
25. The minimum number of meiotic divisions required to obtain 100 pollen grains of wheat
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 150
Ans. (a)
Business Quiz India objective questions
Business Quiz India objective questions
General Knowledge Questions For Business Quiz Competitions in India
India Business Quiz with Answers
1. Gautam Singhania is associated with
1. Jindal Group
2. Microsoft
3. Raymonds
4. Wipro
Ans. (3)
2. Rourkela Steel Plant was set up in collaboration with
1. Germany
2. Britain
3. Russia
4. France
Ans. (1)
3. ‘Avenger’ is a bike model launched by
1. Bajaj
2. Yamaha
3. Honda
4. None of these
Ans. (1)
4. The ad line ‘Flying for Everyone’ is associated with which airlines?
1. Jet Airways
2. Air Deccan
3. Spice Jet
4. Kingfisher Airlines
Ans. (3)
5. The e-Choupal programme, which uses Internet stations in the villages, is an initiative of
1. Reliance Group
2. Infosys
3. LalbhaiGroup
4. ITC Ltd.
Ans. (4)
6. NABARD stands for
1. National Bank for Arboriculture and Rural Development
2. National Board for Advanced Research and Development
3. National Body for Aeronautical Research and Development
4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Ans. (4)
7. Which company is the world’s second largest automaker?
1. Suzuki
2. Ford
3. Toyota
4. Honda
Ans. (3)
8. Which are the new promoters of Dabhol Power Company (DPC)?
1. GE and Bechtel
2. GE and ABB
3. Bechtel and Tatas
4. Bechtel and Reliance Energy
Ans. (1)
9. Which of the following has become the hottest job sector/industry in India now?
1. Information Technology
2. IT - Enabled Services (ITES)
3. Retail Trade
4. Telecom
Ans. (2)
10. The ad line Connecting India is linked with
1. BSNL
2. Airtel
3. MTNL
4. Hutch
Ans. (1)
11. Lufthansa is an air lines from
1. France
2. Russia
3. Poland
4. Germany
Ans. (4)
12. Fortis Hospitals chain is an enterprise of
1. Cipla
2. Aventis
3. Ranbaxy
4. Glaxo
Ans. (3)
13. C-class is a vehicle launched by
1. Maruti Suzuki
2. Ford
3. Mercedes - Benz
4. GM
Ans. (3)
14. Which is the first public sector unit in India to be disinvested?
(1) CMC Ltd.
(2) Modern Food Industries
(3) BALCO
(4) Hindustan Zinc Ltd
Ans. (2)
15. The ad line Going beyond expectations’ is associated with
1. Singapore Airlines
2. Malaysia Airlines
3. Indian Airlines
4. Japan Airlines
Ans. (2)
16. The company Easy Bill had been launched by
1. Hero Group
2. Modi Group
3. Lalbhai Group
4. Aditya Birla Group
Ans. (2)
17. British oil and gas firm Cairn Energy had struck oil in
1. Bombay High
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Rajasthan
Ans. (4)
18. Which of the following is not a product from Hindustan Lever Ltd.
1. Ayush
2. Fair and Lovely
3. Sunsilk
4. Anne French
Ans. (4)
19. Deepak Parekh is associated with
1. ICICI
2. HDFC
3. Infosys
4. Microsoft
Ans. (2)
20. Which company sells electronic goods in ndia?
1. Hyundai .
2. Honda
3. Toyota
4. Ford
Ans. (1)
21. NOVA — 135 is a scooter introduced by
1. Bajaj
2. Honda
3. Kinetic
4. Yamaha
Ans. (3)
22.. The slogan Make Life Simple is associated with
1. SBI card
2. BOB card
3. Standard Chartered Bank Card
4. None of these
Ans. (1)
23. Whirlpool Home Appliances company is a company from
1. France
2. Italy
3. UK
4. USA
Ans. (3)
24. Richard Branson is closely connected with
1. Indian Airlines
2. Jet Airways
3. Virgin Atlantic
4. Lufthansa
Ans. (3)
.
25. Servo brand lubricants are from
1. Bharat Petroleum
2. Hindustan Petroleum
3. IBP
4. Indian Oil
Ans. (4)
General Knowledge Questions For Business Quiz Competitions in India
India Business Quiz with Answers
1. Gautam Singhania is associated with
1. Jindal Group
2. Microsoft
3. Raymonds
4. Wipro
Ans. (3)
2. Rourkela Steel Plant was set up in collaboration with
1. Germany
2. Britain
3. Russia
4. France
Ans. (1)
3. ‘Avenger’ is a bike model launched by
1. Bajaj
2. Yamaha
3. Honda
4. None of these
Ans. (1)
4. The ad line ‘Flying for Everyone’ is associated with which airlines?
1. Jet Airways
2. Air Deccan
3. Spice Jet
4. Kingfisher Airlines
Ans. (3)
5. The e-Choupal programme, which uses Internet stations in the villages, is an initiative of
1. Reliance Group
2. Infosys
3. LalbhaiGroup
4. ITC Ltd.
Ans. (4)
6. NABARD stands for
1. National Bank for Arboriculture and Rural Development
2. National Board for Advanced Research and Development
3. National Body for Aeronautical Research and Development
4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Ans. (4)
7. Which company is the world’s second largest automaker?
1. Suzuki
2. Ford
3. Toyota
4. Honda
Ans. (3)
8. Which are the new promoters of Dabhol Power Company (DPC)?
1. GE and Bechtel
2. GE and ABB
3. Bechtel and Tatas
4. Bechtel and Reliance Energy
Ans. (1)
9. Which of the following has become the hottest job sector/industry in India now?
1. Information Technology
2. IT - Enabled Services (ITES)
3. Retail Trade
4. Telecom
Ans. (2)
10. The ad line Connecting India is linked with
1. BSNL
2. Airtel
3. MTNL
4. Hutch
Ans. (1)
11. Lufthansa is an air lines from
1. France
2. Russia
3. Poland
4. Germany
Ans. (4)
12. Fortis Hospitals chain is an enterprise of
1. Cipla
2. Aventis
3. Ranbaxy
4. Glaxo
Ans. (3)
13. C-class is a vehicle launched by
1. Maruti Suzuki
2. Ford
3. Mercedes - Benz
4. GM
Ans. (3)
14. Which is the first public sector unit in India to be disinvested?
(1) CMC Ltd.
(2) Modern Food Industries
(3) BALCO
(4) Hindustan Zinc Ltd
Ans. (2)
15. The ad line Going beyond expectations’ is associated with
1. Singapore Airlines
2. Malaysia Airlines
3. Indian Airlines
4. Japan Airlines
Ans. (2)
16. The company Easy Bill had been launched by
1. Hero Group
2. Modi Group
3. Lalbhai Group
4. Aditya Birla Group
Ans. (2)
17. British oil and gas firm Cairn Energy had struck oil in
1. Bombay High
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Rajasthan
Ans. (4)
18. Which of the following is not a product from Hindustan Lever Ltd.
1. Ayush
2. Fair and Lovely
3. Sunsilk
4. Anne French
Ans. (4)
19. Deepak Parekh is associated with
1. ICICI
2. HDFC
3. Infosys
4. Microsoft
Ans. (2)
20. Which company sells electronic goods in ndia?
1. Hyundai .
2. Honda
3. Toyota
4. Ford
Ans. (1)
21. NOVA — 135 is a scooter introduced by
1. Bajaj
2. Honda
3. Kinetic
4. Yamaha
Ans. (3)
22.. The slogan Make Life Simple is associated with
1. SBI card
2. BOB card
3. Standard Chartered Bank Card
4. None of these
Ans. (1)
23. Whirlpool Home Appliances company is a company from
1. France
2. Italy
3. UK
4. USA
Ans. (3)
24. Richard Branson is closely connected with
1. Indian Airlines
2. Jet Airways
3. Virgin Atlantic
4. Lufthansa
Ans. (3)
.
25. Servo brand lubricants are from
1. Bharat Petroleum
2. Hindustan Petroleum
3. IBP
4. Indian Oil
Ans. (4)
Business Quiz Indian Companies Firms Quiz Containing MCQ Multiple choice Questions
Business Quiz Indian Companies Firms Quiz Containing MCQ Multiple choice Questions
Management MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS MCQ
Free multiple choice questions on Indian Business
1. The currency of South Africa is
(1) Guilder
(2) Pound
(3) Rand
(4) Shekel
Ans. (3)
2. ‘Octavia’- brand belongs to which car manufacturer?
(1) BMW
(2) Skoda
(3) Hyundai
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
3. Aqua guard water purification systems are products from
(1) Kenstar
(2) Voltas
(3) Blue star
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
4. The ad-line ‘Good people to bank with’ is associated with which bank?
(1) Punjab National Bank
(2) State Bank of India
(3) Citi Bank
(4) Union Bank of India
Ans. (4)
5. Telecom company Nokia belongs to which country?
(1) Denmark
(2) USA
(3) Sweden
(4) Finlan1
Ans. (4)
6. ‘The famous book “Two Lives” has been written by
(1) Anurag Mathur
(2) Arundhati Roy
(3) Vikram Seth
(4) Shiv Khera
Ans. (3)
7. ‘Fair and Lovely’ range of products belong to
(1) Procter and Gamble
(2) Lakme
(3) Hindustan Lever
(4) Godrej
Ans. (3)
8. MTNL provides which one of the following quality Services?
(1) Garuda
(2) Trump
(3) Dolphin
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)
9. “Pantene” shampoo belongs to which of the following companies?
(1) Procter & Gamble
(2) Colgate & Pa1molive
(3) Hindustan Lever
(4) Revlon
Ans. (1)
10. ‘Data One’ broadband services have been launched by which organisation?
(1) BSNL
(2) MTNL
(3) Tata Walky
(4) Reliance India Mobile
Ans. (1)
11. National Defence Academy is located at:
(1) Wellington
(2) Khadakvasla
(3) Dehradun
(4) Chennai
Ans. (2)
12. ‘Real’ Juices are products of which company?
(1) Nestle
(2) Dabur
(3) ITC
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
13. Hindustan Machine Tools is a
(1) Private Sector Company
(2) Joint Sector Company
(3) Public sector Company
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
14. Rahul Dravid is associated with the advertising campaign of which bank?
(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) Bank of India
(3) HSBC
(4) HDFC
Ans. (1)
15. What does JVC - a Japanese Electronic giant stand for?
(1) Japan Image Company
(2) Japanese Venture Corporation
(3) Japan Victor Company
(4) Note of these
Ans. (3)
16. Firm “AVENTIS” has been created by the merger of which of the following two companies?
(1) Rhone Poulec & Hoechst
(2) Ciba& Sandoz
(3) Centurion Bank & Twentieth Century Finance
(4) Reuters & Dow Jones
Ans. (1)
17. Which of the following is true about Ted Turner?
(1) He is founder of CNN
(2) He is partner in Microsoft Corporation
(3) He is founder of Newsweek
(4) He is. founder of the Reader’s Digest
Ans. (1)
18. ‘Georgia Gold’ brand of hot or cold beverages belong to which company?
(1) Pepsi
(2) Nestle
(3) HLL
(4) Coca-Cola
Ans. (4)
19. Apple Computers Inc. was started by which of the following entrepreneurs?
(1) Jack Welch
(2) Bill Gates
(3) Steve Jobs
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
20. Procter & Gamble took over which famous brand recently?
(1) Revlon
(2) Vicks
(3) Gillette
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
21. Which of the following is not an advertising agency?
(1) Sergio Tachini
(2) Saatchi & Saatchi
(3) Trikaya grey
(4) Clarion Bates
Ans. (1)
22. The car “Nexia” belongs to which one of the following companies?
(1) Honda
(2) Daewoo
(3) General Motors
(4) Fiat
Ans. (2)
23. Which of the following companies is also present in other sectors like FMCG, Electrical equipment, apart from IT?
(1) Polaris
(2) Infosys
(3) Wipro
(4) Patni Computers
Ans. (3)
24. Which Indian businessman brought back the ‘Sword of Tippu Sultan’ to India?
(1) Kurmaramangalam Birla
(2) Ratan Tata
(3) Naveen Jindal
(4) Vijay Mallya
Ans. (4)
25.. Where are the Headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?
(1) Singapore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Manila
(4) Mumbai
Ans. (3)
Management MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS MCQ
Free multiple choice questions on Indian Business
1. The currency of South Africa is
(1) Guilder
(2) Pound
(3) Rand
(4) Shekel
Ans. (3)
2. ‘Octavia’- brand belongs to which car manufacturer?
(1) BMW
(2) Skoda
(3) Hyundai
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
3. Aqua guard water purification systems are products from
(1) Kenstar
(2) Voltas
(3) Blue star
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
4. The ad-line ‘Good people to bank with’ is associated with which bank?
(1) Punjab National Bank
(2) State Bank of India
(3) Citi Bank
(4) Union Bank of India
Ans. (4)
5. Telecom company Nokia belongs to which country?
(1) Denmark
(2) USA
(3) Sweden
(4) Finlan1
Ans. (4)
6. ‘The famous book “Two Lives” has been written by
(1) Anurag Mathur
(2) Arundhati Roy
(3) Vikram Seth
(4) Shiv Khera
Ans. (3)
7. ‘Fair and Lovely’ range of products belong to
(1) Procter and Gamble
(2) Lakme
(3) Hindustan Lever
(4) Godrej
Ans. (3)
8. MTNL provides which one of the following quality Services?
(1) Garuda
(2) Trump
(3) Dolphin
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)
9. “Pantene” shampoo belongs to which of the following companies?
(1) Procter & Gamble
(2) Colgate & Pa1molive
(3) Hindustan Lever
(4) Revlon
Ans. (1)
10. ‘Data One’ broadband services have been launched by which organisation?
(1) BSNL
(2) MTNL
(3) Tata Walky
(4) Reliance India Mobile
Ans. (1)
11. National Defence Academy is located at:
(1) Wellington
(2) Khadakvasla
(3) Dehradun
(4) Chennai
Ans. (2)
12. ‘Real’ Juices are products of which company?
(1) Nestle
(2) Dabur
(3) ITC
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
13. Hindustan Machine Tools is a
(1) Private Sector Company
(2) Joint Sector Company
(3) Public sector Company
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
14. Rahul Dravid is associated with the advertising campaign of which bank?
(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) Bank of India
(3) HSBC
(4) HDFC
Ans. (1)
15. What does JVC - a Japanese Electronic giant stand for?
(1) Japan Image Company
(2) Japanese Venture Corporation
(3) Japan Victor Company
(4) Note of these
Ans. (3)
16. Firm “AVENTIS” has been created by the merger of which of the following two companies?
(1) Rhone Poulec & Hoechst
(2) Ciba& Sandoz
(3) Centurion Bank & Twentieth Century Finance
(4) Reuters & Dow Jones
Ans. (1)
17. Which of the following is true about Ted Turner?
(1) He is founder of CNN
(2) He is partner in Microsoft Corporation
(3) He is founder of Newsweek
(4) He is. founder of the Reader’s Digest
Ans. (1)
18. ‘Georgia Gold’ brand of hot or cold beverages belong to which company?
(1) Pepsi
(2) Nestle
(3) HLL
(4) Coca-Cola
Ans. (4)
19. Apple Computers Inc. was started by which of the following entrepreneurs?
(1) Jack Welch
(2) Bill Gates
(3) Steve Jobs
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
20. Procter & Gamble took over which famous brand recently?
(1) Revlon
(2) Vicks
(3) Gillette
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
21. Which of the following is not an advertising agency?
(1) Sergio Tachini
(2) Saatchi & Saatchi
(3) Trikaya grey
(4) Clarion Bates
Ans. (1)
22. The car “Nexia” belongs to which one of the following companies?
(1) Honda
(2) Daewoo
(3) General Motors
(4) Fiat
Ans. (2)
23. Which of the following companies is also present in other sectors like FMCG, Electrical equipment, apart from IT?
(1) Polaris
(2) Infosys
(3) Wipro
(4) Patni Computers
Ans. (3)
24. Which Indian businessman brought back the ‘Sword of Tippu Sultan’ to India?
(1) Kurmaramangalam Birla
(2) Ratan Tata
(3) Naveen Jindal
(4) Vijay Mallya
Ans. (4)
25.. Where are the Headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?
(1) Singapore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Manila
(4) Mumbai
Ans. (3)
Syllabus for post of Senior Teacher Primary in RPSC
Syllabus for post of Senior Teacher Primary in RPSC
PAPER – I
For the competitive examination for the post of senior teacher :-
1. The question paper will carry maximum 200 marks.
2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 hours.
3. The question paper will carry 100 questions of multiple choices.
4. Paper shall include following subjects carrying the number of marks as shown against them :-
(i) Geographical, Historical, Cultural and general knowledge of Rajasthan. 80 marks
(ii) Current Affairs of Rajasthan 20 marks
(iii) General knowledge of world and India 60 marks
(iv) Educational Psychology. 40 marks
Paper II
A. For the post of Senior Teacher :-
1. The question paper will carry maximum 300 marks.
2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 Hours 30 Minutes
3. The question paper will carry 150 questions of multiple choices.
4. Paper shall include following subjects carrying the number of marks as shown against them :-
(i) Knowledge of secondary and senior secondary standard about relevant subject matter. 180 marks
(ii) knowledge of graduation standard about relevant subject matter 80 marks
(iii) Teaching methods of relevant subject. 40 marks
PAPER – I
For the competitive examination for the post of senior teacher :-
1. The question paper will carry maximum 200 marks.
2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 hours.
3. The question paper will carry 100 questions of multiple choices.
4. Paper shall include following subjects carrying the number of marks as shown against them :-
(i) Geographical, Historical, Cultural and general knowledge of Rajasthan. 80 marks
(ii) Current Affairs of Rajasthan 20 marks
(iii) General knowledge of world and India 60 marks
(iv) Educational Psychology. 40 marks
Paper II
A. For the post of Senior Teacher :-
1. The question paper will carry maximum 300 marks.
2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 Hours 30 Minutes
3. The question paper will carry 150 questions of multiple choices.
4. Paper shall include following subjects carrying the number of marks as shown against them :-
(i) Knowledge of secondary and senior secondary standard about relevant subject matter. 180 marks
(ii) knowledge of graduation standard about relevant subject matter 80 marks
(iii) Teaching methods of relevant subject. 40 marks
Model paper Rajasthan teacher jobs Primary and Senior Teacher
Model paper Rajasthan teacher jobs Primary and Senior Teacher
General knowledge of world and India
This GK test is useful for
Senior Primary Teacher Vacancy in RPSC
1. Which one of the following is used for making Bullet-Proof material ?
(A) Poly-Vinyl Chloride
(B) Poly-amide
(C) Poly-carbonate
(D) Polyethylene
Ans:-C
2. Television signals cannot be received ordinarily beyond particular distance due to—
(A) Weakness of signals
(B) Weak antenna
(C) Absorption of signals in the air
(D) Curvature of the earth
Ans:-D
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Television
(c) A.T.M.
(b) Mobile Phone
(d) X-Rays
List-II
1. W. Rontgen
2. John Shepherd Barron
3. J.L.Baird
4. John Edwards
Codes:
(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans:-D
4. Cassini space probe had spotted two new moons around which of the planet of the Solar System?
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Pluto
(D) Saturn
Ans:-D
5. When development in Economy takes place, the share of tertiary sector in National
Income—
(A) Increases
(B) Declines
(C) Remains constant
(D) First rises and then falls
Ans:-A
6. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to investigate the conditions of Backward Classes?
(A) Article-343(b)
(B) Article-342
(C) Article-339
(D) Article-340
Ans:-D
7. Which Article of the Constitution provides for appointment of a National Commission to investigate all matters relating to safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes?
(A) Article-330 (b)
(B) Article-335
(C) Article-338 (d)
(D) Article-336
Ans:-C
8. Which one of the following is not a parameter in Human development Index?
(A)Infant mortality rate
(B)Life expectancy
(C)Social inequality
(D)Real percapita income
Ans:-C
9. Which one of the following Fungus is edible?
(A) Penicillium
(B) Mucor
(C) Rhizopus
(D) Morchella
Ans:-D
10. Which one of the following is NOT used by Night Vision Cameras?.
(A) Amplified light
(B) Infrared sensors
(C) Heat radiation from objects
(D) X-Ray radiation from objects
Ans:-A
11. The Earth and the Moon are about same distance from the Sun, yet on the average the Earth is much warmer than Moon. Its reason is—
(A)The Moon is much smaller than the Earth
(B)Nights on the Moon are much longer
(C)The Moon has almost no atmosphere
(D)The surface of the Moon is darker
Ans:-C
12. A 80 kg man, a 40 kg woman and a 20 kg girl skydive simultaneously. If their parachutes are identical, then—
(A) The girl will land first of all
(B) The woman will land first of all
(C) The man will land first of all
(D) All three will land simultaneously
Ans:-D
13. Match List-I with List-II about the recent Yash Bharti awards and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Abhishek Bachchan.
(b) Shitla Singh
(c) Taluqdar Yadav
(d) Yogesh Praveen
List-II
1. Journalism
2. Wrestling
3. History-writing
4. Art
5. Music
Codes:
(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 5 2 4 1
Ans:-C
14. The Governing Council of Shivaji was called
(A) Mantri Parishad
(B) Mantri Sabha
(C) Mantri Mandal
(D) Ashta Pradhan
Ans:-D
15. Who f the following Sultans introduced the system of ‘Patta’ and ‘Qabuliyat’ to help the peasants?
(A) Giyasuddin Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Tughlaq
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Sher Shah
Ans:-D
16. Who of the following Mughal Emperors abolished the custom of ‘Sijda’ of Prostration?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans:-C
17. Who among the following rulers introduced the principle of ‘Local Responsibility’ in village administration?
(A) Akbar
(B) Sher Shah Sun
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Dara Shikoh
Ans:-B
18. Who among the following composed the famous flag song ‘Jhanda Unchaa Rahe
Hamara’ ?
(A) Maithili Sharan Gupta
(B) Surya Kant Tripathi ‘Nirala’
(C) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’
(D) Shyam Lal Gupta ‘Parshad’
Ans:-D
19. Who among the following was associated with ‘Samvaad Kaumudi’, ‘Miratul Akhabar’ and ‘Vedant College’?
(A) Ishwar Chandra Vidya-sagar
(B) Keshav Chandra Sen
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Henry Vivian Derezio
Ans:-C
20. The meaning of cultural lag is—
(A) When material culture is left behind non- material culture
(B) When non-material culture is left behind material culture
(C) When both material and non-material cultures rest on same point
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
21. Gasohol is a combination of gasoline and—
(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Propylene
(D) Both -A and B
Ans:-D
22. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly—
(A) Two minutes
(B) Four minutes
(C) Eight minutes
(D) Sixteen minutes
Ans:-C
23. The only active volcano in India is—
(A) Vesuvius
(B) Etna
(C) Barren Island
(D) Stromboli
Ans:-C
24. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area
(B) Arunachal Pradesh has the largest area under dense forests
(C) Nagaland is the most forecasted State of India
(D) Haryana is the least forested State of India
Ans:-C
25. In which one of the following parts of atmosphere most large aero planes, like jets,
generally fly ?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Exosphere
Ans:-A
26. The following rivers of India flow into the Bay of Bengal—
1. Godavari
2. Kaveri
3. Krishna
4. Mahanadi
5. Subarnarekha
Which one of the following is their correct sequence from South to North
(A) 3,2,4, 1,5
(B) 5,4, 1,3,2
(C) 4,5, 1,3,2
(D) 2,3, 1,4,5
Ans:-D
27. The real aim of Lord Curzon to partition Bengal was—
(A) To create a Muslim majority province
(B) To help the economic dev4opment of East Bengal
(C) To weaken the forces of nationalism in Bengal
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
28. When Gandhiji was arrested during salt satyagraha, who took his place as the leader of the movement?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Abbas Tayabji
Ans:-D
29. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers ?
(A) Agha Khan
(B) Ajmal Khan
(C) Hasan Imam
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Ans:-D
30. Sanyasi revolt broke out in—
(A) Avadh
(B) Bengal
(C) Haryana
(D) Punjab
Ans:-B
31. Which of the following occurred in Maharashtra?
(A) Bhil uprising
(B) Kol uprising
(C) Rampa uprising
(D) Santhal uprising
Ans:-A
32. Which one of the following is not a measure of Globalisation ?
(A) Disinvestment of the Public Sector Undertakings
(B) Reduction of import duty
(C) Making rupee convertible
(D) Allowing free flow of Foreign Direct Investment
Ans:-A
33. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Cold arid zone — Ladakh
(B) Wet humid zone — Northern India
(C) Tropical Monsoon zone — Central India
(D) Warm arid zone — Rajasthan
Ans:-B
34. The Dandakaranya Project covers the parts of—
(A) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
Ans:-C
35. The most urbanised state of India is—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans:-C
36. The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are—
(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(B) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka and Maharashtra
Ans:-A
37. Consider the following statements about Atlantic Ocean and choose which one is not
correct—
(A) It is the World’s Second Largest Ocean
(B) It covers nearly 30 per cent of earth
(C) It spreads from Arctic Ocean in the North to Antarctica in the South
(D) It is the saltiest Ocean
Ans:-B
38. Acid rain is caused by—
(A) Reaction between water of clouds and sulphur dioxide pollutant
(B) Reaction between rain water and carbon dioxide pollutant
(C) Cooling of acid vapours reaching the clouds
(D) Reaction between water vapour and electric charge dui1ng lightening and cloud bursts
Ans:-A
39. Which medium is used by ‘Radar’ to trace aeroplanes?
(A) Micro wave
(B) Electric wave
(C) Ultrasonic wave
(D) Sound wave
Ans:-A
40. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A): Stem cell research has become very important in view of the multipotent capacity of stem cells.
Reason (R) : Stem cells can develop into a complete foetus.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
General knowledge of world and India
This GK test is useful for
Senior Primary Teacher Vacancy in RPSC
1. Which one of the following is used for making Bullet-Proof material ?
(A) Poly-Vinyl Chloride
(B) Poly-amide
(C) Poly-carbonate
(D) Polyethylene
Ans:-C
2. Television signals cannot be received ordinarily beyond particular distance due to—
(A) Weakness of signals
(B) Weak antenna
(C) Absorption of signals in the air
(D) Curvature of the earth
Ans:-D
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Television
(c) A.T.M.
(b) Mobile Phone
(d) X-Rays
List-II
1. W. Rontgen
2. John Shepherd Barron
3. J.L.Baird
4. John Edwards
Codes:
(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans:-D
4. Cassini space probe had spotted two new moons around which of the planet of the Solar System?
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Pluto
(D) Saturn
Ans:-D
5. When development in Economy takes place, the share of tertiary sector in National
Income—
(A) Increases
(B) Declines
(C) Remains constant
(D) First rises and then falls
Ans:-A
6. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to investigate the conditions of Backward Classes?
(A) Article-343(b)
(B) Article-342
(C) Article-339
(D) Article-340
Ans:-D
7. Which Article of the Constitution provides for appointment of a National Commission to investigate all matters relating to safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes?
(A) Article-330 (b)
(B) Article-335
(C) Article-338 (d)
(D) Article-336
Ans:-C
8. Which one of the following is not a parameter in Human development Index?
(A)Infant mortality rate
(B)Life expectancy
(C)Social inequality
(D)Real percapita income
Ans:-C
9. Which one of the following Fungus is edible?
(A) Penicillium
(B) Mucor
(C) Rhizopus
(D) Morchella
Ans:-D
10. Which one of the following is NOT used by Night Vision Cameras?.
(A) Amplified light
(B) Infrared sensors
(C) Heat radiation from objects
(D) X-Ray radiation from objects
Ans:-A
11. The Earth and the Moon are about same distance from the Sun, yet on the average the Earth is much warmer than Moon. Its reason is—
(A)The Moon is much smaller than the Earth
(B)Nights on the Moon are much longer
(C)The Moon has almost no atmosphere
(D)The surface of the Moon is darker
Ans:-C
12. A 80 kg man, a 40 kg woman and a 20 kg girl skydive simultaneously. If their parachutes are identical, then—
(A) The girl will land first of all
(B) The woman will land first of all
(C) The man will land first of all
(D) All three will land simultaneously
Ans:-D
13. Match List-I with List-II about the recent Yash Bharti awards and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Abhishek Bachchan.
(b) Shitla Singh
(c) Taluqdar Yadav
(d) Yogesh Praveen
List-II
1. Journalism
2. Wrestling
3. History-writing
4. Art
5. Music
Codes:
(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 5 2 4 1
Ans:-C
14. The Governing Council of Shivaji was called
(A) Mantri Parishad
(B) Mantri Sabha
(C) Mantri Mandal
(D) Ashta Pradhan
Ans:-D
15. Who f the following Sultans introduced the system of ‘Patta’ and ‘Qabuliyat’ to help the peasants?
(A) Giyasuddin Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Tughlaq
(C) Bahlol Lodi
(D) Sher Shah
Ans:-D
16. Who of the following Mughal Emperors abolished the custom of ‘Sijda’ of Prostration?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans:-C
17. Who among the following rulers introduced the principle of ‘Local Responsibility’ in village administration?
(A) Akbar
(B) Sher Shah Sun
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Dara Shikoh
Ans:-B
18. Who among the following composed the famous flag song ‘Jhanda Unchaa Rahe
Hamara’ ?
(A) Maithili Sharan Gupta
(B) Surya Kant Tripathi ‘Nirala’
(C) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’
(D) Shyam Lal Gupta ‘Parshad’
Ans:-D
19. Who among the following was associated with ‘Samvaad Kaumudi’, ‘Miratul Akhabar’ and ‘Vedant College’?
(A) Ishwar Chandra Vidya-sagar
(B) Keshav Chandra Sen
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Henry Vivian Derezio
Ans:-C
20. The meaning of cultural lag is—
(A) When material culture is left behind non- material culture
(B) When non-material culture is left behind material culture
(C) When both material and non-material cultures rest on same point
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
21. Gasohol is a combination of gasoline and—
(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Propylene
(D) Both -A and B
Ans:-D
22. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly—
(A) Two minutes
(B) Four minutes
(C) Eight minutes
(D) Sixteen minutes
Ans:-C
23. The only active volcano in India is—
(A) Vesuvius
(B) Etna
(C) Barren Island
(D) Stromboli
Ans:-C
24. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area
(B) Arunachal Pradesh has the largest area under dense forests
(C) Nagaland is the most forecasted State of India
(D) Haryana is the least forested State of India
Ans:-C
25. In which one of the following parts of atmosphere most large aero planes, like jets,
generally fly ?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Exosphere
Ans:-A
26. The following rivers of India flow into the Bay of Bengal—
1. Godavari
2. Kaveri
3. Krishna
4. Mahanadi
5. Subarnarekha
Which one of the following is their correct sequence from South to North
(A) 3,2,4, 1,5
(B) 5,4, 1,3,2
(C) 4,5, 1,3,2
(D) 2,3, 1,4,5
Ans:-D
27. The real aim of Lord Curzon to partition Bengal was—
(A) To create a Muslim majority province
(B) To help the economic dev4opment of East Bengal
(C) To weaken the forces of nationalism in Bengal
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
28. When Gandhiji was arrested during salt satyagraha, who took his place as the leader of the movement?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Abbas Tayabji
Ans:-D
29. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers ?
(A) Agha Khan
(B) Ajmal Khan
(C) Hasan Imam
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Ans:-D
30. Sanyasi revolt broke out in—
(A) Avadh
(B) Bengal
(C) Haryana
(D) Punjab
Ans:-B
31. Which of the following occurred in Maharashtra?
(A) Bhil uprising
(B) Kol uprising
(C) Rampa uprising
(D) Santhal uprising
Ans:-A
32. Which one of the following is not a measure of Globalisation ?
(A) Disinvestment of the Public Sector Undertakings
(B) Reduction of import duty
(C) Making rupee convertible
(D) Allowing free flow of Foreign Direct Investment
Ans:-A
33. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Cold arid zone — Ladakh
(B) Wet humid zone — Northern India
(C) Tropical Monsoon zone — Central India
(D) Warm arid zone — Rajasthan
Ans:-B
34. The Dandakaranya Project covers the parts of—
(A) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
Ans:-C
35. The most urbanised state of India is—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans:-C
36. The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are—
(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(B) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka and Maharashtra
Ans:-A
37. Consider the following statements about Atlantic Ocean and choose which one is not
correct—
(A) It is the World’s Second Largest Ocean
(B) It covers nearly 30 per cent of earth
(C) It spreads from Arctic Ocean in the North to Antarctica in the South
(D) It is the saltiest Ocean
Ans:-B
38. Acid rain is caused by—
(A) Reaction between water of clouds and sulphur dioxide pollutant
(B) Reaction between rain water and carbon dioxide pollutant
(C) Cooling of acid vapours reaching the clouds
(D) Reaction between water vapour and electric charge dui1ng lightening and cloud bursts
Ans:-A
39. Which medium is used by ‘Radar’ to trace aeroplanes?
(A) Micro wave
(B) Electric wave
(C) Ultrasonic wave
(D) Sound wave
Ans:-A
40. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A): Stem cell research has become very important in view of the multipotent capacity of stem cells.
Reason (R) : Stem cells can develop into a complete foetus.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)