Free GK For Exams First Indian Lists to Win, Cross, Score, Award, literature
Lists to Win Cross Score Award literature
Very useful for general studies as ias study material
This info is useful for Any examthat contains questions on current affairs like ias India,railway engineering, mba exams,KVS TGT,PCS etc
First Indian Olympic team medal - Gold for Hockey. At Amsterdam beating the Netherlands (1928)
First Indian Olympic individual medal winner - K. D. Jadhav, Bronze in wrestling at Helsinki (1952)
First Asian woman to swim across the English Channel - Arati Saha, India (1959 )
First woman Chess grandmaster of india
- S. Vijayalakshmi (2000)
First Indian woman medal winner in Olympics - Karnam Malleswari, Bronze in weightlifting, Sydney (2000)
First Indian woman to win a round at a Grand Slam - Nirupama Vaidyanathan who vbeat Italian Gloria Pizzichini in the first round of the Australian Open (1998)
First Indian Cricket test match - Against England at Lord’s (1932)
First Indian Cricket captain - CK Nayudu, for the tour of England (1932)
First Indian cricketer to score a century- Lala Amamath, against England in South Bombay.
Independent india’s first test captain : Lala Amamath leading a tour of Australia in 1947-48. (1933)
First Indian cricketer to score a triple century - Virender Sehwag, against Pakistan at Multan (2004)
First Indian hat-trick in Test cricket - Harbhajan Singh, against Australia (2001)
First Indian batsman to complete 10,000 runs-Sunil Gavaskar also first in the world
First Indian Tennis Grand Slam title- Mahesh Rhupathi, Japanese Rika Hiraki, in the Mixed Doubles French Open(1997)
First Indian woman to appear in an Olympic final - P.T. Usha, Los Angeles (1984)
Indian woman in the third round (highest for Indian women) of a tennis Grand Slam event- Sania Mirza, Singles category of the Australian Open (2005)
First Indian woman to win an individual gold medal in Asian Games - Kamaljit Sandhu, Bangkok, 400 m (1970)
First Indian to win an individual Olympic Gold - Abhinav Bindra (2008)
First Indian woman to reach Antarctica- Meher Moos (1976)
First Indian in space - Rakesh Sharma aboard Salyut 7 (1984)
First Indian woman to climb Mount Everest - Bachendri Pal. (1984 )
First woman to conquer Everest twice - Santosh Yadav, India (1993 )
First Indian to win Nobel Prize in Literature - Rabindranath Tagore. (1913)
First woman from India to win a Nobel Prize-Mother Teresa, Peace Prize (1979)
First woman to win the jananpath -Ashapurna Devi (1976)
First woman to receive Bharat Ratna - Indira Gandhi (1971)
First Indian woman to win a Pulitzer Prize- Jhumpa Lahiri (2000)
First Indian to win Booker Prize - Arund hati Roy. For ‘The God of Small Things’ (1997)
First Education Minister of free India - Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
First Indian to win Dadasaheb Phalke Award - Devika Rani (1970)
First Indian Oscar winner - Bhanu Athaiya, For Best Costume Design for the film ‘Gandhi’ (1982)
Monday, February 20, 2012
Sunday, February 19, 2012
model test paper Free Online English language Quiz For SAIL MT CDS NDA Bank PO UPSC IES Competitive exams India
model test paper Free Online English language Quiz For SAIL MT CDS NDA Bank PO UPSC IES Competitive exams India
Free Online English language Quiz For CDS NDA Bank PO UPSC IES Competitive exams India
English Language is part of Many exams
In bank PO 50 Questions Come For English Language Test
For PGT and TGT also English language is part of syllabus
In UPSC IES indian Engineering Services it is large part of general Ability test
For the Graduate engineers who are preparing For various PSU's as management Trainee or Engineer trainee practice of english language test is essential.
For all the persons who are preparing for exams we are giving Databank of Questions on English Language.
Its a model test paper Containing 50 Questions.
Answers are Given at The End of test
Good luck for exams
Directions (1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered, These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more ..1.. in governance. The Prime Minister’s announcement that his Government is ..2.. drafting legislation to..3.. the citizen’s right to information is indeed welcome, Though the talk on the right to information is not now, we may..4.. the bill to be brought early this time. The previous Government bad setup a high-level committee to ..5.. a draft bill. But nothing has been heard about the matter since,..6.. the committee did quite some work. The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution cannot be ..7.. further.
Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a Foreign judge once said, while the ..8.. unwarranted secrecy in an administrative system. When those in authority know that people have the right to ask questions and the government is under the ..9.. to provide them with answers, ..10.. of authority, or of public finances, for personal or party ends is less likely to happen.
1.
1) strictness
2) rudeness
3) leniency
4) economy
5) transparency
2.
1) personally
2) busy
3) not
4) reluctantly
5) absolutely
3.
1) presumption
2) absolve
3) curb
4) question
5) establish
4.
1) expect
2) wait
3) try
4) frustrate
5) appeal
5.
1) level
2) regard
3) prepare
4) enact
5) unearth
6.
1) even
2) as
3) because
4) until
5) though
7.
1) found
2) expected
3). delayed
4) looked
5) longed
8.
1) nurturing
2) criticizing
3) demanding
4) appreciating
5) upholding
9.
1) pretention
2) affect
3) substance
4) obligation
5) property .
10.
1) misuse
2) governance
3) dishonour
4) curbing
5) breach
Directions (Q. 11-18): In each question, one of the five parts of the sentence is shown with an asterisk. The other four parts of the same sentence are denoted by (A), (B), (C) & (D). Find out the correct sequence of these lettered parts which when read together with the asterisked part in its proper position, makes the sentence meaningfully complete. Please note that more than one sequence may also be correct. Therefore, indicate your answer only after judging all the answer choices provided.
11. *are not keeping
A. good health lately
B. you should know
C. why you
D. the reason
1) Only BDC*A
2) Only DBCA*
3) Only BADC*
4) only C*DBA
5) Only BD*AC
12. * thiefs
A. to guard his house
B. and keep away
C. some fierce dogs
D he keeps
1) Only *CBAD
2) Only DCAB*
3) Only D*ABC
4) only AD*BC
5) None of these
13. * his business
A. was a heavy blow to
B. his crime
C. the discovery of
D.. his reputation and
1) Only C*ADB
2) only BADC*
3) Only CBAD*
4) Either * ACDB or C*ABD
5) None of these
14. * the book
A in his own words
B. he had read
C. the entire story
D. carefully and could tell
1) Only B*DCA
2) only BACD*
3) Only ABD*C
4) only AB*Dc
5) None of these
15. * have been
A. he is
B. One of the Greatest
C. of Novelists
D. University Acknowledged to
1) only A*BCD
2) only BC*AD
3)Either A*BCD or AD*BC
4) Only AD*BC
5) None of these
16.* to Vist Me
A. he never came
B. in spite of
C. inviting Him
D. my continually
1) Only AC*BD
2) Only BCD*A
3) Only A*BCD
4) Only C*BDA
5) None of these
17. * believed it
A. with my own eyes
B. I would
C. had I not seen this
D. no thave
1) Only-B*DAC
2) Only BD*CA
3) Only CABD*
4) Both BD*CA and CABD*
5) None of these
18. . * it is
A. understand why
B. his own sons
C. he distrusts
D. difficult to
1) Only * DACB
2) Only A*BDC
3) only BA*DC
4) Only CB*AD
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 19-23): Rearrange the following seven--sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
A. The history of that system is, however, a warning than a stimulus to reorganise a similar scheme.
B. However, we can’t resign ourselves merely because
there are not data.
C. One of the commonest risk which agricultural life is exposed to in this country is famine or failure of crops.
D. There are, however, no reliable data on which such a scheme of insurance can be based.
E. A kind of Famine Insurance System was attempted by the British Government of India in the last century.
F. Still, the need for such a scheme to cover the losses due to famine, cattle plague, crop -pests, etc. can’t be undermined.
G. It is obviously because of failure of rain and the
19. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
l)A
2)B
3)C
4)D
5)E
20. Which of the following should be the sixth sentence in the paragraph?
l)E
2)D
3)B
4)C
5)A
21. Which of -the following should be there in the third
position in the paragraph? -
l)B
2)C
3)D
4)E
5)F
22. Which of the following’ should be the first sentence after rearrangement?
l)A
2)B
3)D
4)C
5)E
23. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement?
1)B
2)G
3)D
4)E
5)F
Directions (Q. 24-28) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pair of words denoted by numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
24. He objected to the proposal because it was founded on a
…. principle and also was…….. at times.
1) faulty — desirable
2) imperative — reasonable
3) wrong — inconvenient
4) sound — acceptable
5) conforming — deplorable
25. The criterion for _____ a player should be based on his recent performance; but unfortunately, the journalists are_______to be carried away by earlier successes.
1) condemning — satisfying
2) judging — prone
3) revealing — reluctant
4) eager — acclaiming
5) criticizing — clean
26. For the last half century he _____himself to public affairs______ taking a holiday.
1) by — committed
2) after — offered
3) devoted — without
4) sacrificed — after
5) prepared — before
27. You will see signs of ________everywhere, which speak well
for the ________of these people.
1) decoration - senses
2) clear - debris
3) beauty.. careful
4) industry - prosperity
5) repairs – extravaganza
28. The police arrested Ramesh on a ______of theft but for
lack of evidence________ him.
1) crime — imprisoned
2) punished — complaint
3) left — condition
4) tip — absconding
5) charge — released
29. Directions (Q. 29-38): In each sentence below, a word/group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
29. He claims that his proposal is preferable than that of
any other employee.
1) preferable than for
2) preferable for than
3) preferably more than that of
4) preferable to that of
5) No correction required
30. The social worker has championed the cause from the
weak and oppressed for the last four decades. -.
1) has been championing the cause of
2) had championed the cause for
3) has been championing the cause for
4) had been championed the cause for
5) No correction required
31. Initially the hijackers seemed determined not to submit but ultimately they were given in.
1) were given up
2) gave in
3) had been given up
4) had been given in
5) No correction required
32. Every one of us must have experienced how people have to put up with a good deal of discomfort while traveling.
1) have to be put with a good deal of
2) have been putting p a good deal with
3) have to put up a good deal with
4) are putting up with a good deal with
5) No correction required
33. Disputes are mainly maintained by those who are nothing else to do.
1) have nothing else to do
2) are nothing to do else where
3) had nothing to be done
4) do not have nothing else to do
5) No correction required
34. The judge noticed that the two statements made by the
accused were not consistent from each other.
1) were not being in consistence for
2) were being inconsistent at
3) had not been consistent for
4) were not consistent with
5) No correction required
35. The economic reforms initiated in 1991 have bornefruit.
1) has born fruit
2) have burnt fruit
3) have been borne fruits
4) have been bearing the fruits
5) No correction required
36. Our business firms were full aware of the problems they
were going to face on the threshold of the year 2000.
1) have been full aware of
2) were fully aware of
3) had been fully aware at
4) were fully aware into
5) No correction required
37. The habit of smoking has been grow upon the youngsters.
1) is growing up
2) has been grown up
3) has been growing upon
4) has grown up
5) No correction required
38. To succeed in a difficult task, persistent is needed.
1) persistent is what one needs
2) persistence should have needed
3) one need to be persisted
4) persistence is needed
5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 39-50): There are two paragraphs followed by questions based on each of them. Read these paragraphs and answer the questions given below them. Some words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Paragraph-I
Recently a study was made on the popularity of TV programmes and viewers’ perception about their quality. The study of attitudes towards prime-time television programmes showed that programmes with identical ratings in terms of numbers of people watching received highly divergent marks for quality from their viewers. This additional piece of info could prove valuable for advertisers who might be well advised to spend their advertising money for programmes that viewers feel are of high quality.
39. Which of the following is most nearly the same in
meaning as the word feel as used in the passage?
1) pour
2) sympathise
3) perceive
4) evolve
5) sensitise
40. Which of the following is most nearly opposite in meaning of the word divergent as used in the passage?
1) pointed
2) similar
3) heterogeneous
4) synonymous
5) focussed
41. Which of the following inferences can best be drawn from the above paragraph?
1) The number of viewers decided the quality of the programmes.
2) The viewers’ perception about the quality of programmes is significant for advertisers.
3) The poor quality programmes have very few viewers.
4) Advertisers can derive benefit from the information about viewers’ perception of quality of programmes.
5) None of these
42. Which of the following is/are the finding(s) of the study?
A. The viewers decide the prime-time television programmes.
B. The attitudes of viewers cannot be reliably assessed.
C. The advertisers were benefited from good quality
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C only
4) All the three
5) None of these
43. Which of the following can be inferred from the contents of the paragraph?
A. Advertisement can have some effect on the viewers’ buying habits.
B. Money spent on advertising with high quality programmes yields more profits.
C. Different prograrnmes equal number of viewers can be rated differently as far as quality is concerned.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only A and B
4) B and C
5) None of these
Paragraph-II
Econometric models like the computable general equilibrium model are mostly valuable in policy formulation as they give some insight into how trade policy changes will affect the sectoral composition of output and employment. They are not in themselves designed to provide direct inputs but really to serve as background as to the sectors that will be most favourably or most unfavourably affected by policy. Besides they render valuable help in policy matters regarding free trade.
Free trade has Distinct benefits .These benefits are well accepted all over. However, there is a growing opposition to free trade. There is an increasing perception among certain groups of how international trading systems impact, especially how they affect low-wage workers and also have a degrading environmental impact.
Yet it is difficult to accept that that is the reason for any kind of protectionist move in the most advanced countries.
44. Most advanced countries are cautious about free trade because
A. They prefer to have a protectionist approach.
B. They feel degraded in international trading community.
C. Their vested interests are thwarted.
l)A and B only
2)B and C only
3)A and C only
4)All of them
5) None of these
45. The author the passage seems to be
1) in favour of use of econometric models but against free trade.
2) in favour of free trade but neutral regarding econometric models.
3) against both free trade as well as econometric models.
4) indifferent about both free trade and econometric models.
5) in favour of both econometric models and free trade.
46. Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage?
A. Despite the advantages of free trade, it is not whole heartedly acclaimed by most advanced countries.
B. Policy formulation should be solely dependent on econometric models.
C. Reasons for model protectionist approach by advanced countries are not given in the passage.
l) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) A and B only
5)B and C only
47. What is the contribution of econometric models?
1) They help develop insight into increasing output rough less manpower.
2) They help in implementing new policies regarding free trade.
3) They help develop insight into how change influence certain sectors.
4) They ensure that policy changes have only positive impact on the economy.
5) None of.these
48. Which of the following is the characteristic of econometric models?
1) They serve as a backdrop.
2) They are unfavourable to free trade.
3) Their design is not conducive to increase employment.
4) They do not serve direct inputs.
5) Both l and 4
49. The changes in economic policy are most likely to have
1) only desirable effect on all the sectors involved.
2) a mixed influence on all the sectors involved.
3) negative impact unless all the sectors are involved.
4) unfavourable effect on employment opportunities.
5) None of these
50. Free trade has been receiving escalating disapproval because
l)it has a very distinct range of benefits.
2) it unduly favours low-wage workers.
3) it leads to protectionist approach among advanced countries.
4) it affects international trading systems adversely.
5) None of these
Answers
Free Online English language Quiz For CDS NDA Bank PO UPSC IES Competitive exams India
English Language is part of Many exams
In bank PO 50 Questions Come For English Language Test
For PGT and TGT also English language is part of syllabus
In UPSC IES indian Engineering Services it is large part of general Ability test
For the Graduate engineers who are preparing For various PSU's as management Trainee or Engineer trainee practice of english language test is essential.
For all the persons who are preparing for exams we are giving Databank of Questions on English Language.
Its a model test paper Containing 50 Questions.
Answers are Given at The End of test
Good luck for exams
Directions (1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered, These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more ..1.. in governance. The Prime Minister’s announcement that his Government is ..2.. drafting legislation to..3.. the citizen’s right to information is indeed welcome, Though the talk on the right to information is not now, we may..4.. the bill to be brought early this time. The previous Government bad setup a high-level committee to ..5.. a draft bill. But nothing has been heard about the matter since,..6.. the committee did quite some work. The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution cannot be ..7.. further.
Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a Foreign judge once said, while the ..8.. unwarranted secrecy in an administrative system. When those in authority know that people have the right to ask questions and the government is under the ..9.. to provide them with answers, ..10.. of authority, or of public finances, for personal or party ends is less likely to happen.
1.
1) strictness
2) rudeness
3) leniency
4) economy
5) transparency
2.
1) personally
2) busy
3) not
4) reluctantly
5) absolutely
3.
1) presumption
2) absolve
3) curb
4) question
5) establish
4.
1) expect
2) wait
3) try
4) frustrate
5) appeal
5.
1) level
2) regard
3) prepare
4) enact
5) unearth
6.
1) even
2) as
3) because
4) until
5) though
7.
1) found
2) expected
3). delayed
4) looked
5) longed
8.
1) nurturing
2) criticizing
3) demanding
4) appreciating
5) upholding
9.
1) pretention
2) affect
3) substance
4) obligation
5) property .
10.
1) misuse
2) governance
3) dishonour
4) curbing
5) breach
Directions (Q. 11-18): In each question, one of the five parts of the sentence is shown with an asterisk. The other four parts of the same sentence are denoted by (A), (B), (C) & (D). Find out the correct sequence of these lettered parts which when read together with the asterisked part in its proper position, makes the sentence meaningfully complete. Please note that more than one sequence may also be correct. Therefore, indicate your answer only after judging all the answer choices provided.
11. *are not keeping
A. good health lately
B. you should know
C. why you
D. the reason
1) Only BDC*A
2) Only DBCA*
3) Only BADC*
4) only C*DBA
5) Only BD*AC
12. * thiefs
A. to guard his house
B. and keep away
C. some fierce dogs
D he keeps
1) Only *CBAD
2) Only DCAB*
3) Only D*ABC
4) only AD*BC
5) None of these
13. * his business
A. was a heavy blow to
B. his crime
C. the discovery of
D.. his reputation and
1) Only C*ADB
2) only BADC*
3) Only CBAD*
4) Either * ACDB or C*ABD
5) None of these
14. * the book
A in his own words
B. he had read
C. the entire story
D. carefully and could tell
1) Only B*DCA
2) only BACD*
3) Only ABD*C
4) only AB*Dc
5) None of these
15. * have been
A. he is
B. One of the Greatest
C. of Novelists
D. University Acknowledged to
1) only A*BCD
2) only BC*AD
3)Either A*BCD or AD*BC
4) Only AD*BC
5) None of these
16.* to Vist Me
A. he never came
B. in spite of
C. inviting Him
D. my continually
1) Only AC*BD
2) Only BCD*A
3) Only A*BCD
4) Only C*BDA
5) None of these
17. * believed it
A. with my own eyes
B. I would
C. had I not seen this
D. no thave
1) Only-B*DAC
2) Only BD*CA
3) Only CABD*
4) Both BD*CA and CABD*
5) None of these
18. . * it is
A. understand why
B. his own sons
C. he distrusts
D. difficult to
1) Only * DACB
2) Only A*BDC
3) only BA*DC
4) Only CB*AD
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 19-23): Rearrange the following seven--sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
A. The history of that system is, however, a warning than a stimulus to reorganise a similar scheme.
B. However, we can’t resign ourselves merely because
there are not data.
C. One of the commonest risk which agricultural life is exposed to in this country is famine or failure of crops.
D. There are, however, no reliable data on which such a scheme of insurance can be based.
E. A kind of Famine Insurance System was attempted by the British Government of India in the last century.
F. Still, the need for such a scheme to cover the losses due to famine, cattle plague, crop -pests, etc. can’t be undermined.
G. It is obviously because of failure of rain and the
19. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
l)A
2)B
3)C
4)D
5)E
20. Which of the following should be the sixth sentence in the paragraph?
l)E
2)D
3)B
4)C
5)A
21. Which of -the following should be there in the third
position in the paragraph? -
l)B
2)C
3)D
4)E
5)F
22. Which of the following’ should be the first sentence after rearrangement?
l)A
2)B
3)D
4)C
5)E
23. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement?
1)B
2)G
3)D
4)E
5)F
Directions (Q. 24-28) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pair of words denoted by numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
24. He objected to the proposal because it was founded on a
…. principle and also was…….. at times.
1) faulty — desirable
2) imperative — reasonable
3) wrong — inconvenient
4) sound — acceptable
5) conforming — deplorable
25. The criterion for _____ a player should be based on his recent performance; but unfortunately, the journalists are_______to be carried away by earlier successes.
1) condemning — satisfying
2) judging — prone
3) revealing — reluctant
4) eager — acclaiming
5) criticizing — clean
26. For the last half century he _____himself to public affairs______ taking a holiday.
1) by — committed
2) after — offered
3) devoted — without
4) sacrificed — after
5) prepared — before
27. You will see signs of ________everywhere, which speak well
for the ________of these people.
1) decoration - senses
2) clear - debris
3) beauty.. careful
4) industry - prosperity
5) repairs – extravaganza
28. The police arrested Ramesh on a ______of theft but for
lack of evidence________ him.
1) crime — imprisoned
2) punished — complaint
3) left — condition
4) tip — absconding
5) charge — released
29. Directions (Q. 29-38): In each sentence below, a word/group of words has been printed in bold. From the five answer choices given below each sentence, pick out the one which can substitute the bold word/group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
29. He claims that his proposal is preferable than that of
any other employee.
1) preferable than for
2) preferable for than
3) preferably more than that of
4) preferable to that of
5) No correction required
30. The social worker has championed the cause from the
weak and oppressed for the last four decades. -.
1) has been championing the cause of
2) had championed the cause for
3) has been championing the cause for
4) had been championed the cause for
5) No correction required
31. Initially the hijackers seemed determined not to submit but ultimately they were given in.
1) were given up
2) gave in
3) had been given up
4) had been given in
5) No correction required
32. Every one of us must have experienced how people have to put up with a good deal of discomfort while traveling.
1) have to be put with a good deal of
2) have been putting p a good deal with
3) have to put up a good deal with
4) are putting up with a good deal with
5) No correction required
33. Disputes are mainly maintained by those who are nothing else to do.
1) have nothing else to do
2) are nothing to do else where
3) had nothing to be done
4) do not have nothing else to do
5) No correction required
34. The judge noticed that the two statements made by the
accused were not consistent from each other.
1) were not being in consistence for
2) were being inconsistent at
3) had not been consistent for
4) were not consistent with
5) No correction required
35. The economic reforms initiated in 1991 have bornefruit.
1) has born fruit
2) have burnt fruit
3) have been borne fruits
4) have been bearing the fruits
5) No correction required
36. Our business firms were full aware of the problems they
were going to face on the threshold of the year 2000.
1) have been full aware of
2) were fully aware of
3) had been fully aware at
4) were fully aware into
5) No correction required
37. The habit of smoking has been grow upon the youngsters.
1) is growing up
2) has been grown up
3) has been growing upon
4) has grown up
5) No correction required
38. To succeed in a difficult task, persistent is needed.
1) persistent is what one needs
2) persistence should have needed
3) one need to be persisted
4) persistence is needed
5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 39-50): There are two paragraphs followed by questions based on each of them. Read these paragraphs and answer the questions given below them. Some words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Paragraph-I
Recently a study was made on the popularity of TV programmes and viewers’ perception about their quality. The study of attitudes towards prime-time television programmes showed that programmes with identical ratings in terms of numbers of people watching received highly divergent marks for quality from their viewers. This additional piece of info could prove valuable for advertisers who might be well advised to spend their advertising money for programmes that viewers feel are of high quality.
39. Which of the following is most nearly the same in
meaning as the word feel as used in the passage?
1) pour
2) sympathise
3) perceive
4) evolve
5) sensitise
40. Which of the following is most nearly opposite in meaning of the word divergent as used in the passage?
1) pointed
2) similar
3) heterogeneous
4) synonymous
5) focussed
41. Which of the following inferences can best be drawn from the above paragraph?
1) The number of viewers decided the quality of the programmes.
2) The viewers’ perception about the quality of programmes is significant for advertisers.
3) The poor quality programmes have very few viewers.
4) Advertisers can derive benefit from the information about viewers’ perception of quality of programmes.
5) None of these
42. Which of the following is/are the finding(s) of the study?
A. The viewers decide the prime-time television programmes.
B. The attitudes of viewers cannot be reliably assessed.
C. The advertisers were benefited from good quality
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C only
4) All the three
5) None of these
43. Which of the following can be inferred from the contents of the paragraph?
A. Advertisement can have some effect on the viewers’ buying habits.
B. Money spent on advertising with high quality programmes yields more profits.
C. Different prograrnmes equal number of viewers can be rated differently as far as quality is concerned.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only A and B
4) B and C
5) None of these
Paragraph-II
Econometric models like the computable general equilibrium model are mostly valuable in policy formulation as they give some insight into how trade policy changes will affect the sectoral composition of output and employment. They are not in themselves designed to provide direct inputs but really to serve as background as to the sectors that will be most favourably or most unfavourably affected by policy. Besides they render valuable help in policy matters regarding free trade.
Free trade has Distinct benefits .These benefits are well accepted all over. However, there is a growing opposition to free trade. There is an increasing perception among certain groups of how international trading systems impact, especially how they affect low-wage workers and also have a degrading environmental impact.
Yet it is difficult to accept that that is the reason for any kind of protectionist move in the most advanced countries.
44. Most advanced countries are cautious about free trade because
A. They prefer to have a protectionist approach.
B. They feel degraded in international trading community.
C. Their vested interests are thwarted.
l)A and B only
2)B and C only
3)A and C only
4)All of them
5) None of these
45. The author the passage seems to be
1) in favour of use of econometric models but against free trade.
2) in favour of free trade but neutral regarding econometric models.
3) against both free trade as well as econometric models.
4) indifferent about both free trade and econometric models.
5) in favour of both econometric models and free trade.
46. Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage?
A. Despite the advantages of free trade, it is not whole heartedly acclaimed by most advanced countries.
B. Policy formulation should be solely dependent on econometric models.
C. Reasons for model protectionist approach by advanced countries are not given in the passage.
l) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) A and B only
5)B and C only
47. What is the contribution of econometric models?
1) They help develop insight into increasing output rough less manpower.
2) They help in implementing new policies regarding free trade.
3) They help develop insight into how change influence certain sectors.
4) They ensure that policy changes have only positive impact on the economy.
5) None of.these
48. Which of the following is the characteristic of econometric models?
1) They serve as a backdrop.
2) They are unfavourable to free trade.
3) Their design is not conducive to increase employment.
4) They do not serve direct inputs.
5) Both l and 4
49. The changes in economic policy are most likely to have
1) only desirable effect on all the sectors involved.
2) a mixed influence on all the sectors involved.
3) negative impact unless all the sectors are involved.
4) unfavourable effect on employment opportunities.
5) None of these
50. Free trade has been receiving escalating disapproval because
l)it has a very distinct range of benefits.
2) it unduly favours low-wage workers.
3) it leads to protectionist approach among advanced countries.
4) it affects international trading systems adversely.
5) None of these
Answers
1 |
5 |
2 |
2 |
3 |
5 |
4 |
1 |
5 |
3 |
6 |
5 |
7 |
3 |
8 |
2 |
9 |
4 |
10 |
1 |
11 |
1 |
12 |
2 |
13 |
3 |
14 |
1 |
15 |
4 |
16 |
5 right sequence is A*BDC |
17 |
4 |
18 |
1 |
19 |
1 |
20 |
2 |
21 |
4 |
22 |
4 |
23 |
2 |
24 |
3 |
25 |
2 |
26 |
3 |
27 |
4 |
28 |
5 |
29 |
4 |
30 |
1 |
31 |
2 |
32 |
5 |
33 |
1 |
34 |
4 |
35 |
5 |
36 |
2 |
37 |
3 |
38 |
4 |
39 |
3 |
40 |
2 |
41 |
4 |
42 |
5 |
43 |
4 |
44 |
5 |
45 |
5 |
46 |
1 |
47 |
3 |
48 |
5 |
49 |
2 |
50 |
5 |
Wednesday, February 8, 2012
Objective English Practice Set For Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Post Graduate Teachers Recruitment Exam
Objective English Practice Set For Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Post Graduate Teachers Recruitment Exam
MCQ English for teachers Job Exams
Directions: In each of the following sentence, a blank has been given which
can be filled correctly by one of the four alternatives given under it. That is
your answer.
1. All too often journalists fail to ….. personal privacy.
(a) Consider
(b) Regard
(c) Respect
(d) Admire
ANSWER: (c)
2. It ….. to me that she was incurable.
(a) Suggested
(b) Flashed
(c) Happened
(d) Occurred
ANSWER: (d)
3. The police had to be called to control a ….. between two political groups.
(a) Brawl
(b) Confusion
(c) Riot
(d) Disturbance
ANSWER: (d)
4. I am feeling ….. better today.
(a) Too
(b) Rather
(c) Very
(d) Fairly
ANSWER: (d)
5. When you were sick, it was your mother who ….. you back to health.
(a) Aroused
(b) Urged
(c) Assured
(d) Nursed
ANSWER: (d)
6. The fact is so ….. that no one ever succeeded even in defining it.
(a) Elusive
(b) Slanderous
(c) Morbid
(d) Fragmentary
Answer: (a)
7. Vishakha ….. two minutes and thirty seconds to take the first place in the women’s 800m race.
(a) Ran
(b) Used
(c) Timed
(d) Clocked
Answer: (d)
8. The chairman treated the employees to a ….. lunch at an expensive hotel.
(a) Precious
(b) Sumptuous
(c) Thriving
(d) Stupendous
Answer. (b)
9. The whole plot was ….. well managed.
(a) Perfectly
(b) Nicely
(c) Exquisitely
(d) Exceedingly
Answer: (d)
10. The twins are so alike that I cannot ….. one from the other.
(a) Discern
(b) Tell
(c) Say
(d) Notice
Answer: (b)
Directions : Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Ready each paragraph carefully and answer the question
given below it
11. The virtue of art does not allow the work to be interfered with or immediately
ruled by anything other than itself. It insists that it alone shall touch the work
in order to bring it into being Art requires that nothing shall attain the
work except through art it self
This passage best supports the statement that
(a) Art is governed by external rules and conditions.
(b) Art is for the sake of art and life.
(c) Art is for the sake of art alone.
(d) Artist realizes his dreams through his artistic creation.
(e) Artist should use his art for the sake of society.
ANSWER: (c)
12. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have
been attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became
millionaires overnight. India has a vast coast line both on the Eastern and
Western Coast. It has been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on
their activities with great impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time
certain seizures were made by the enforcement authorities, during -raids
and ambush but even allowing these losses the smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that :
(a) Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
(b) Smuggling ought to be curbed.
(c) Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
(d) Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing .to the quick profit it entails.
ANSWER: (d)
13. Emerson said that the poet was landlord, Sealord, air lord. The flight of
imagination made the poet master of land, sea and air. But a poet’s dream of
yesterday becomes today an ‘actual achievement and a reality for all men.
Even those who invented, improved and perfected the aero plane could hardly
have dreamt of the 'possibility of flight into outer space.
The passage best supports the statement that
(a) Seemingly impossible imaginations make one a good poet.
(b) All imaginations become a reality some day
(c) What man imagined has never been impossible; he has always
turned it a reality through his conception of ideas and sheer hard labor
(d) Man has reached the climax of technological development with his
exploration into outer space.
ANSWER: (c)
14. It is up to our government and planners to devise ways and means for the
mobilization of about ten core workers whose families total up about forty core
men, women and children. Our agriculture is over-manned. A lesser number of
agriculturists would mean more purchasing or spending power to every
agriculturist. This will result in the shortage of man-power for many
commodities to be produced for which there will be a new demand from a
prosperous agrarian class. This shortage will be removed by surplus man-power
released from agriculture as suggested above.
The passage best supports the statement that-
(a) Employment in production is more fruitful than the employment in agriculture.
(b) Indian economy is in a poor shape basically due to improper mobilization of
man-power.
(c) A shift of labor from agricultural sector to the industrial sector would uplift
the living standard.
(d) The industrial sector is labor deficient t while the agricultural sector is over
manned in our country.
ANSWER: (b)
15. Throughout the ages the businessman has helped build civilization’s great
cities, provided people with luxuries and artists with patronage, and lift his fellow
citizens to understand the standard of living. In the last few centuries the
businessman has seeded the Industrial Revolution around the world.
The passage best' supports the statement that the businessman
(a) Is accountable to the Society
(b) Lives luxurious and comfortable life
(c) Is the beneficiary of the Industrial Revolution
(d) Is capable of raising his standard of living
(e) Has contributed to the growth of civilization
ANSWER: (e)
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer questions based on this passage
Passage
It is to progress in the human sciences that we must look to undo the evils which have
resulted from a knowledge of the physical world hastily and superficially acquired by
populations unconscious of the changes in themselves that the new knowledge has made
imperative. The road to a happier world than any known in the past lies open before us if
atavistic destructive passions can be kept in leash while the necessary adaptations are made.
Fears are inevitable in our time, but hopes are equally rational an far more likely to bear
Good fruit. We must learn to think rather less of the dangers to be avoided than of the
Good that will lie within our grasp if we can believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts.
Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it may have by the way, is in its very nature a
liberator, a liberator, of bondage to physical nature and in to come, a liberator from the
weight of destructive passions. We are on the threshold of utter disaster or unprecedentedly
glorious achievement. No previous age has been fraught with problems so momentous
and it is to science that we must look to for a happy future.
16. What does science liberate us from?
It liberates us from
(a) Bondage to physical nature
(b) Fears and destructive passions
(c) Idealistic hopes of a glorious future
(d) Slavery to physical nature and from passions
ANSWER: (d)
17. To carve out a bright future a man should
(a) Try to avoid dangers
(b) Overcome fears and dangers
(c) Cultivate a positive outlook
(d) Analyse dangers that lie ahead
ANSWER: (c)
18. If man’s bestial yearning is controlled
(a) The present will be brighter than the future.
(b) The present will become tolerant.
(c) The future will be brighter than the present.
(d) The fixture will be tolerant.
ANSWER: (c)
19. Fears and hopes, according to the author
(a) Can yield good results
(b) Can bear fruit
(c) Are irrational
(d) Are closely linked with the life of modern man
ANSWER: (d)
20. Should human sciences be developed because they will
(a) Eliminate the destruction caused by a superficial knowledge of the physical world
(b) Make us conscious of the changes in ourselves
(c) Make us conscious of the changing world
(d) Provide more knowledge of the physical world
ANSWER: (a)
MCQ English for teachers Job Exams
Directions: In each of the following sentence, a blank has been given which
can be filled correctly by one of the four alternatives given under it. That is
your answer.
1. All too often journalists fail to ….. personal privacy.
(a) Consider
(b) Regard
(c) Respect
(d) Admire
ANSWER: (c)
2. It ….. to me that she was incurable.
(a) Suggested
(b) Flashed
(c) Happened
(d) Occurred
ANSWER: (d)
3. The police had to be called to control a ….. between two political groups.
(a) Brawl
(b) Confusion
(c) Riot
(d) Disturbance
ANSWER: (d)
4. I am feeling ….. better today.
(a) Too
(b) Rather
(c) Very
(d) Fairly
ANSWER: (d)
5. When you were sick, it was your mother who ….. you back to health.
(a) Aroused
(b) Urged
(c) Assured
(d) Nursed
ANSWER: (d)
6. The fact is so ….. that no one ever succeeded even in defining it.
(a) Elusive
(b) Slanderous
(c) Morbid
(d) Fragmentary
Answer: (a)
7. Vishakha ….. two minutes and thirty seconds to take the first place in the women’s 800m race.
(a) Ran
(b) Used
(c) Timed
(d) Clocked
Answer: (d)
8. The chairman treated the employees to a ….. lunch at an expensive hotel.
(a) Precious
(b) Sumptuous
(c) Thriving
(d) Stupendous
Answer. (b)
9. The whole plot was ….. well managed.
(a) Perfectly
(b) Nicely
(c) Exquisitely
(d) Exceedingly
Answer: (d)
10. The twins are so alike that I cannot ….. one from the other.
(a) Discern
(b) Tell
(c) Say
(d) Notice
Answer: (b)
Directions : Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Ready each paragraph carefully and answer the question
given below it
11. The virtue of art does not allow the work to be interfered with or immediately
ruled by anything other than itself. It insists that it alone shall touch the work
in order to bring it into being Art requires that nothing shall attain the
work except through art it self
This passage best supports the statement that
(a) Art is governed by external rules and conditions.
(b) Art is for the sake of art and life.
(c) Art is for the sake of art alone.
(d) Artist realizes his dreams through his artistic creation.
(e) Artist should use his art for the sake of society.
ANSWER: (c)
12. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have
been attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became
millionaires overnight. India has a vast coast line both on the Eastern and
Western Coast. It has been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on
their activities with great impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time
certain seizures were made by the enforcement authorities, during -raids
and ambush but even allowing these losses the smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that :
(a) Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
(b) Smuggling ought to be curbed.
(c) Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
(d) Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing .to the quick profit it entails.
ANSWER: (d)
13. Emerson said that the poet was landlord, Sealord, air lord. The flight of
imagination made the poet master of land, sea and air. But a poet’s dream of
yesterday becomes today an ‘actual achievement and a reality for all men.
Even those who invented, improved and perfected the aero plane could hardly
have dreamt of the 'possibility of flight into outer space.
The passage best supports the statement that
(a) Seemingly impossible imaginations make one a good poet.
(b) All imaginations become a reality some day
(c) What man imagined has never been impossible; he has always
turned it a reality through his conception of ideas and sheer hard labor
(d) Man has reached the climax of technological development with his
exploration into outer space.
ANSWER: (c)
14. It is up to our government and planners to devise ways and means for the
mobilization of about ten core workers whose families total up about forty core
men, women and children. Our agriculture is over-manned. A lesser number of
agriculturists would mean more purchasing or spending power to every
agriculturist. This will result in the shortage of man-power for many
commodities to be produced for which there will be a new demand from a
prosperous agrarian class. This shortage will be removed by surplus man-power
released from agriculture as suggested above.
The passage best supports the statement that-
(a) Employment in production is more fruitful than the employment in agriculture.
(b) Indian economy is in a poor shape basically due to improper mobilization of
man-power.
(c) A shift of labor from agricultural sector to the industrial sector would uplift
the living standard.
(d) The industrial sector is labor deficient t while the agricultural sector is over
manned in our country.
ANSWER: (b)
15. Throughout the ages the businessman has helped build civilization’s great
cities, provided people with luxuries and artists with patronage, and lift his fellow
citizens to understand the standard of living. In the last few centuries the
businessman has seeded the Industrial Revolution around the world.
The passage best' supports the statement that the businessman
(a) Is accountable to the Society
(b) Lives luxurious and comfortable life
(c) Is the beneficiary of the Industrial Revolution
(d) Is capable of raising his standard of living
(e) Has contributed to the growth of civilization
ANSWER: (e)
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer questions based on this passage
Passage
It is to progress in the human sciences that we must look to undo the evils which have
resulted from a knowledge of the physical world hastily and superficially acquired by
populations unconscious of the changes in themselves that the new knowledge has made
imperative. The road to a happier world than any known in the past lies open before us if
atavistic destructive passions can be kept in leash while the necessary adaptations are made.
Fears are inevitable in our time, but hopes are equally rational an far more likely to bear
Good fruit. We must learn to think rather less of the dangers to be avoided than of the
Good that will lie within our grasp if we can believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts.
Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it may have by the way, is in its very nature a
liberator, a liberator, of bondage to physical nature and in to come, a liberator from the
weight of destructive passions. We are on the threshold of utter disaster or unprecedentedly
glorious achievement. No previous age has been fraught with problems so momentous
and it is to science that we must look to for a happy future.
16. What does science liberate us from?
It liberates us from
(a) Bondage to physical nature
(b) Fears and destructive passions
(c) Idealistic hopes of a glorious future
(d) Slavery to physical nature and from passions
ANSWER: (d)
17. To carve out a bright future a man should
(a) Try to avoid dangers
(b) Overcome fears and dangers
(c) Cultivate a positive outlook
(d) Analyse dangers that lie ahead
ANSWER: (c)
18. If man’s bestial yearning is controlled
(a) The present will be brighter than the future.
(b) The present will become tolerant.
(c) The future will be brighter than the present.
(d) The fixture will be tolerant.
ANSWER: (c)
19. Fears and hopes, according to the author
(a) Can yield good results
(b) Can bear fruit
(c) Are irrational
(d) Are closely linked with the life of modern man
ANSWER: (d)
20. Should human sciences be developed because they will
(a) Eliminate the destruction caused by a superficial knowledge of the physical world
(b) Make us conscious of the changes in ourselves
(c) Make us conscious of the changing world
(d) Provide more knowledge of the physical world
ANSWER: (a)
Thursday, September 1, 2011
verbal reasoning quiz
verbal reasoning quiz in English!
verbal reasoning quiz practice test
Verbal Reasoning Test
1. Four of the following five are all alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Sultry
(2) Hot
(3) Humid
(4) Warm
(5) Cool
Ans. (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 126
(2) 217
(3) 345
(4) 513
(5) 730
Ans. (3)
3. If its possible to make a meaningful English word with the seventh, the tenth and the fourth letters of the word ARIS OPATHOLOGY and the only vowel from the word ‘TOP’, the third letter of that word is your answer. If more than one English word can be formed, M is your answer. If no such word can be formed, your answer is ‘N’.
(1) O
(2) P
(3) S
(4) M
(5) N
Ans. (4)
4. In a row of girls Ravina is 15th from the left and Mohini is 18th from the right. If they interchange their places. Mohini be comes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(1) 33
(2) 48
(3) 47
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
5. In a certain code language ‘SHORT’ is written as ‘ITOUS’ and ‘DWARF’ is written as ‘XEAGS’. How is ’MANGO’ written in that code language?
(1) NBNHP
(2) BNNPH
(3) BNNHP
(4) LBNPF
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
6. Four of the following live are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Now
(2) After Then
(3) Then
(4) Before
(5) Again
Ans. (5)
7. Among four persons B is taller than C, A is taller than D, but not as tall as C. Who among them is the tallest?
(1) A
(2) 5
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
8. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols? Y9B* W*DV7 *U5F?
(1) S3H*
(2) T#H*
(3) T*# H
(4) S*H5
(5) SH*I
Ans. (1)
9. In a certain code language ‘MEAL’ is written as ‘$£*@’ and ‘SAFE’ is written as ‘@*+£’. How is ‘FAME’ written in that code language?
(1) +*$E
(2) *+$@
(3) +@$
(4) £@*+
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
10. ‘If is related to condition’ in the same way as ‘but’ is related to —
(1) Supplement
(2) Negation
(3) Contradiction
(4) Strengthen
(5) Disapproval
Ans. (3)
verbal reasoning quiz practice test
Verbal Reasoning Test
1. Four of the following five are all alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Sultry
(2) Hot
(3) Humid
(4) Warm
(5) Cool
Ans. (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 126
(2) 217
(3) 345
(4) 513
(5) 730
Ans. (3)
3. If its possible to make a meaningful English word with the seventh, the tenth and the fourth letters of the word ARIS OPATHOLOGY and the only vowel from the word ‘TOP’, the third letter of that word is your answer. If more than one English word can be formed, M is your answer. If no such word can be formed, your answer is ‘N’.
(1) O
(2) P
(3) S
(4) M
(5) N
Ans. (4)
4. In a row of girls Ravina is 15th from the left and Mohini is 18th from the right. If they interchange their places. Mohini be comes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(1) 33
(2) 48
(3) 47
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
5. In a certain code language ‘SHORT’ is written as ‘ITOUS’ and ‘DWARF’ is written as ‘XEAGS’. How is ’MANGO’ written in that code language?
(1) NBNHP
(2) BNNPH
(3) BNNHP
(4) LBNPF
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
6. Four of the following live are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Now
(2) After Then
(3) Then
(4) Before
(5) Again
Ans. (5)
7. Among four persons B is taller than C, A is taller than D, but not as tall as C. Who among them is the tallest?
(1) A
(2) 5
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
8. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols? Y9B* W*DV7 *U5F?
(1) S3H*
(2) T#H*
(3) T*# H
(4) S*H5
(5) SH*I
Ans. (1)
9. In a certain code language ‘MEAL’ is written as ‘$£*@’ and ‘SAFE’ is written as ‘@*+£’. How is ‘FAME’ written in that code language?
(1) +*$E
(2) *+$@
(3) +@$
(4) £@*+
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
10. ‘If is related to condition’ in the same way as ‘but’ is related to —
(1) Supplement
(2) Negation
(3) Contradiction
(4) Strengthen
(5) Disapproval
Ans. (3)
Objective English For SAIL BHEL ONGC IOC Exam
Objective English For SAIL BHEL ONGC IOC Exam
English MCQ for Exams
Directions (1-10) In each question below a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type is given. One of them or both may contain error. You have to find out the correct word .of group of words from among the three choices denoted by (A), (B) and (C) given below each sentence which can replace the wrong word/group. of words and make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5)
i.e. No Correction Required as your answer.
1. Our firm determination had due impact on them and they will be changed their decision.
(A) having ……. have changed
(B) emphasised ………. will be changed
(C) had ……… changed
(1) A only
(2) B Only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
2. Deep breathing exercises are found to be of extreme helpful to patients suffering from high blood pressure.
(A) Deeply breathing ……. extremely helpful
(B) Deep breathing ……. of extreme help
(C) Deep breathing ..... extremely helpful
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
3. By the time they reach the station, the train had been departed.
(A) reached …. has
(B) reach …. had
(C) reached ….. had
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
4. These days, customers have been receiving better services from bank employees.
(A) received …… by
(B) been received ….. from
(C) received ….. from
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
5. It was heartening news that you narrowly escaped being run over by a speeding car yesterday.
(A) narrowed …… run over
(B) narrowly ……. run across
(C) narrowed down ……. Running over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
6. What matters most is the quality of the product and only not merely the cost, appearance or site.
(A) What ….. not merely
(B) It ….. not only
(C) All that …… only not mere
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
7. Your investment advisor should be concerned about the security of high returns on your investment rather than his benefit.
(A) should b concern ….. for
(B) should have concern …… with
(C) should be having concern ….. over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or B
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
8. People who are insensitive and indifference to the agonies of the poor cannot serve the society.
(A) indifference …… suffering
(B) indifferent ……. suffering
(C) indifferent …….. agonies
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (4)
9. Getting carry away by slightest provocation is a sigh of immaturity.
(A) Getting carried away …… immaturity
(B) Get carry away ……… maturity
(C) Get carried away ……. Maturity
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
10. Our employees are so careful in their work that one has been so far found any error in their work.
(A) very careful ….. have so far found
(B) so careful ….. has so far found
(C) so efficient …… have so far found
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (2)
Directions (11-20) : In each question below, two sentences are given’ These two sentences are to be combined into a single sentence without changing their meaning. Three probable starters of the combined sentence are given which are denoted by (A), (B) and (C). Any or more or none of’ them may be correct. Find out the correct starter (s) and accordingly select your answer from among the given five answer choices.
11. It is very cold here. You must carry warm clothes with you.
(A) Since you must …..
(B) As it is very ……
(C) If it is very …..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B.
(3) Only C
(4) A and C only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (2)
12. You must sign your railway pass, write your name and age on it, According to the railway authorities, it becomes valid only after that.
(A) To make your railway pass valid, the railway authorities should …..
(B) Without validating your railway pass, you cannot sign ……
(C) To validate your railway pass, you must ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (3)
13. The doctor says that Ramesh has lost his immunity. Therefore, he is vulnerable to any disease.
(A) Ramesh’s loss of immunity …..
(B) Because of his vulnerability to his …….
(C) His vulnerability to any disease ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) Only A and B
Ans. (1)
14. How much you speak is less important. What is more important is how relevant you speak.
(A) How relevant you speak is …….
(B) How much you speak is as important …….
(C) How relevant you speak is not as important ……
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
15. You must submit a copy of your ration card. Only then your application for telephone connection will be considered.
(A) Unless you submit ……
(B) Unless your application for …….
(C) Without your application for …….
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and B
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
16. You need two tickets? Please stand in the queue.
(A) If you need ……
(B) In case you need …..
(C) Should you need …..
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
17. The quality of the fabric was not impressive. We changed our plan of purchasing.
(A) The quality of the fabric being ……
(B) We changed our …..
(C) In spite of the unimpressive …….
(l) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C
(4) A only
(5) All the three A, B and C
Ans. (1)
18. Madhuri has been consistent in her studies. Her performance in the examination was nothing else but excellent.
(A) Despite being consistent in her studies …….
(B Madhuri’s performance in the examination was not excellent because …….
(C) Because Madhuri was only consistent and not intelligent, her performance ……..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All the three A, B and C
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
19. Don’t add so much chilly powder to the soup. Consumers are only small children.
(A) Because small children do not allow chilly powder ……
(B) Since small children do not consume more soup …….
(C) Adding more chilly powder to. soup makes the small children like the …..
(1) None
(2) A only
(3) B only
(4) C only
(5) A and C only
Ans. (1)
20. He always delays in taking any action. It makes others suffer a lot.
(A) His taking action on time makes ……
(B) Other suffer a lot because of …..
(C) On account of his procrastination…..
(l) A, B and C
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and C only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
Directions (21-25) : In each question, there are three sentences denoted by
(A), (B) and (C). Find our which two or three sentences convey the same meanings. If all three sentences are different, mark 5 as the answer i.e. ‘all different’.
21. (A) The Manager would like you to help him locate the fault.
(B) If you help him locate the fault, the Manager would like you.
(C) The Manager desires that you should provide him the necessary assistance to locate the fault.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (3)
22. (A) Although the strike of transporters continues, I shall come.
(B) I shall come If the strike of transporters continues.
(C) Even though I come, the strike of transporters is going to continue.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
23. (A) Unlike the tribals who are hard working, the urban communities cannot withstand physical train.
(B) The tribals can withstand physical strain whereas urban communities cannot.
(C) Because the tribals are hardworking they can tolerate physical strain.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
24. (A) Should you need a visa you must submit an application along with your Passport and a copy of Income tax returns.
(B) Unless you do not submit an application along with your passport and “copy of income tax returns, you will not get visa”.
(C) If you submit your application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns you do not need visa.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
25. (A) The judge remarked that not all the accused were really guilty.
(B) The judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty while others were not.
(C) The judge remarked that all those who are accused include some who are not really guilty.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (4)
Directions (26-30): Each question is a set of 3 or 4 sentences which convey an idea. Of these, one or two is/are suppressed. To fill up the spaces of the suppressed sentence (s) two possible fillers denoted by (A) and (B) are given. Find out which one, two or none can fill up the space of the suppressed sentence (s) to make the paragraph meaningful and mark your answer accordingly.
26. As far as aircraft maintenance procedures are concerned, they are rigorous. (___)Such cases may end up in disastrous results, though exceptionally.
(A) All problems are immediately corrected on almost every occasion.
(B) Only due to urgency or want of aircraft for substitution, certain ones are overlooked.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
27. The interrogation lasted for about nine full working days (___). The judge observed that he was impressed with the outcome as the involvement of the accused in the crime was crystal clean.
(A) Hardly anything worth the name came out of such a marathon interrogation.
(B) The prosecution lawyer though in vain, had relentlessly applied all has wit to expose the accused.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
28. Auto riding is a very fascinating hobby (___). It is obvious that they consider the hobby more important that anything else.
(A) Low or even middle income group can’t afford it.
(B) I know many people who has missed many important cases or opportunities in autoriding
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
29. There is no doubt that we must befair and honest in all our dealings (___). What you really are is less important than what you are perceived by people around you.
(A) It means that perception assumes greater importance that reality
(B) But even more important is how you are perceived by others.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
30. The admiration for those who fight against corruption in high places has always been very spontaneous amongst the common people in India. They unhasitantly appreciate such acts but are afraid of openly doing so far fear of the higher ups.
(A) They hold such people in high esteem who make sacrifices on principles and moral issues.
(B) They make verbose speeches of admiration and appreciation of such acts.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
English MCQ for Exams
Directions (1-10) In each question below a sentence with two words/group of words printed in bold type is given. One of them or both may contain error. You have to find out the correct word .of group of words from among the three choices denoted by (A), (B) and (C) given below each sentence which can replace the wrong word/group. of words and make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5)
i.e. No Correction Required as your answer.
1. Our firm determination had due impact on them and they will be changed their decision.
(A) having ……. have changed
(B) emphasised ………. will be changed
(C) had ……… changed
(1) A only
(2) B Only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
2. Deep breathing exercises are found to be of extreme helpful to patients suffering from high blood pressure.
(A) Deeply breathing ……. extremely helpful
(B) Deep breathing ……. of extreme help
(C) Deep breathing ..... extremely helpful
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
3. By the time they reach the station, the train had been departed.
(A) reached …. has
(B) reach …. had
(C) reached ….. had
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or
(5) No correction required
Ans. (3)
4. These days, customers have been receiving better services from bank employees.
(A) received …… by
(B) been received ….. from
(C) received ….. from
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
5. It was heartening news that you narrowly escaped being run over by a speeding car yesterday.
(A) narrowed …… run over
(B) narrowly ……. run across
(C) narrowed down ……. Running over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
6. What matters most is the quality of the product and only not merely the cost, appearance or site.
(A) What ….. not merely
(B) It ….. not only
(C) All that …… only not mere
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
7. Your investment advisor should be concerned about the security of high returns on your investment rather than his benefit.
(A) should b concern ….. for
(B) should have concern …… with
(C) should be having concern ….. over
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either A or B
(5) No correction required
Ans. (5)
8. People who are insensitive and indifference to the agonies of the poor cannot serve the society.
(A) indifference …… suffering
(B) indifferent ……. suffering
(C) indifferent …….. agonies
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (4)
9. Getting carry away by slightest provocation is a sigh of immaturity.
(A) Getting carried away …… immaturity
(B) Get carry away ……… maturity
(C) Get carried away ……. Maturity
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None of these
(5) No correction required
Ans. (1)
10. Our employees are so careful in their work that one has been so far found any error in their work.
(A) very careful ….. have so far found
(B) so careful ….. has so far found
(C) so efficient …… have so far found
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) Either B or C
(5) No correction required
Ans. (2)
Directions (11-20) : In each question below, two sentences are given’ These two sentences are to be combined into a single sentence without changing their meaning. Three probable starters of the combined sentence are given which are denoted by (A), (B) and (C). Any or more or none of’ them may be correct. Find out the correct starter (s) and accordingly select your answer from among the given five answer choices.
11. It is very cold here. You must carry warm clothes with you.
(A) Since you must …..
(B) As it is very ……
(C) If it is very …..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B.
(3) Only C
(4) A and C only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (2)
12. You must sign your railway pass, write your name and age on it, According to the railway authorities, it becomes valid only after that.
(A) To make your railway pass valid, the railway authorities should …..
(B) Without validating your railway pass, you cannot sign ……
(C) To validate your railway pass, you must ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B only
(5) B and C only
Ans. (3)
13. The doctor says that Ramesh has lost his immunity. Therefore, he is vulnerable to any disease.
(A) Ramesh’s loss of immunity …..
(B) Because of his vulnerability to his …….
(C) His vulnerability to any disease ……
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) Only A and B
Ans. (1)
14. How much you speak is less important. What is more important is how relevant you speak.
(A) How relevant you speak is …….
(B) How much you speak is as important …….
(C) How relevant you speak is not as important ……
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
15. You must submit a copy of your ration card. Only then your application for telephone connection will be considered.
(A) Unless you submit ……
(B) Unless your application for …….
(C) Without your application for …….
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and B
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
16. You need two tickets? Please stand in the queue.
(A) If you need ……
(B) In case you need …..
(C) Should you need …..
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) All the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
17. The quality of the fabric was not impressive. We changed our plan of purchasing.
(A) The quality of the fabric being ……
(B) We changed our …..
(C) In spite of the unimpressive …….
(l) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C
(4) A only
(5) All the three A, B and C
Ans. (1)
18. Madhuri has been consistent in her studies. Her performance in the examination was nothing else but excellent.
(A) Despite being consistent in her studies …….
(B Madhuri’s performance in the examination was not excellent because …….
(C) Because Madhuri was only consistent and not intelligent, her performance ……..
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All the three A, B and C
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
19. Don’t add so much chilly powder to the soup. Consumers are only small children.
(A) Because small children do not allow chilly powder ……
(B) Since small children do not consume more soup …….
(C) Adding more chilly powder to. soup makes the small children like the …..
(1) None
(2) A only
(3) B only
(4) C only
(5) A and C only
Ans. (1)
20. He always delays in taking any action. It makes others suffer a lot.
(A) His taking action on time makes ……
(B) Other suffer a lot because of …..
(C) On account of his procrastination…..
(l) A, B and C
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and C only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
Directions (21-25) : In each question, there are three sentences denoted by
(A), (B) and (C). Find our which two or three sentences convey the same meanings. If all three sentences are different, mark 5 as the answer i.e. ‘all different’.
21. (A) The Manager would like you to help him locate the fault.
(B) If you help him locate the fault, the Manager would like you.
(C) The Manager desires that you should provide him the necessary assistance to locate the fault.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (3)
22. (A) Although the strike of transporters continues, I shall come.
(B) I shall come If the strike of transporters continues.
(C) Even though I come, the strike of transporters is going to continue.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
23. (A) Unlike the tribals who are hard working, the urban communities cannot withstand physical train.
(B) The tribals can withstand physical strain whereas urban communities cannot.
(C) Because the tribals are hardworking they can tolerate physical strain.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
24. (A) Should you need a visa you must submit an application along with your Passport and a copy of Income tax returns.
(B) Unless you do not submit an application along with your passport and “copy of income tax returns, you will not get visa”.
(C) If you submit your application along with your passport and a copy of income tax returns you do not need visa.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (5)
25. (A) The judge remarked that not all the accused were really guilty.
(B) The judge remarked that some of the accused were guilty while others were not.
(C) The judge remarked that all those who are accused include some who are not really guilty.
(l) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All the three
(5) All different
Ans. (4)
Directions (26-30): Each question is a set of 3 or 4 sentences which convey an idea. Of these, one or two is/are suppressed. To fill up the spaces of the suppressed sentence (s) two possible fillers denoted by (A) and (B) are given. Find out which one, two or none can fill up the space of the suppressed sentence (s) to make the paragraph meaningful and mark your answer accordingly.
26. As far as aircraft maintenance procedures are concerned, they are rigorous. (___)Such cases may end up in disastrous results, though exceptionally.
(A) All problems are immediately corrected on almost every occasion.
(B) Only due to urgency or want of aircraft for substitution, certain ones are overlooked.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
27. The interrogation lasted for about nine full working days (___). The judge observed that he was impressed with the outcome as the involvement of the accused in the crime was crystal clean.
(A) Hardly anything worth the name came out of such a marathon interrogation.
(B) The prosecution lawyer though in vain, had relentlessly applied all has wit to expose the accused.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
28. Auto riding is a very fascinating hobby (___). It is obvious that they consider the hobby more important that anything else.
(A) Low or even middle income group can’t afford it.
(B) I know many people who has missed many important cases or opportunities in autoriding
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
29. There is no doubt that we must befair and honest in all our dealings (___). What you really are is less important than what you are perceived by people around you.
(A) It means that perception assumes greater importance that reality
(B) But even more important is how you are perceived by others.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
30. The admiration for those who fight against corruption in high places has always been very spontaneous amongst the common people in India. They unhasitantly appreciate such acts but are afraid of openly doing so far fear of the higher ups.
(A) They hold such people in high esteem who make sacrifices on principles and moral issues.
(B) They make verbose speeches of admiration and appreciation of such acts.
(1) A and B
(2) B and A
(3) A only
(4) B only
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
Solved LIC AO ADO Numerical Ability
Solved LIC AO ADO Numerical Ability
Solved Paper - Quantitative Aptitude: LIC Officers Exam
Directions ( 1-5) Find out the wrong number in the following given sequence.
1. 7 4 6 9 20 52.5 160.5
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 20
(4) 9
(5) 52.5
Ans. (1)
2. 4 6 12 30 75 315 1260
(1) 315
(2) 75
(3) 12
(4) 6
(5) 30
Ans. (2)
3. 3 4 13 38 87 166 289
(1) 38
(2) 13
(3) 87
(4) 166
(5) 4
Ans. (4)
4. 4 5 9 29 111 556 3325
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 29
(4) 111
(5) 556
Ans. (3)
5. 2 6 16 38 84 176 368
(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 38
(4) 84
(5) 176
Ans. (4)
6. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(1) 4kmph
(2) 6kmph
(3) 8 kmph
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
7. What approximate value should come in place of? in the following equation?
9876 ÷ 24.96 + 215.005-? = 309.99
(1) 395
(2) 295
(3) 300
(4) 315
(5) 310
Ans. (3)
8. Sunetra invested an amount of Rs. 50,000 to start a software business. After six months Nikhil joined her with an amount of Rs. 80,000. At the end of 3 years they earned a profit of Rs. 24, 500. What is Sunetra’s ‘share in the profit?
(1) Rs, 14,000
(2) Rs. 9423
(3) Rs. 10, 250
(4) Rs. 1. 50
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
9. Two girls and 4 boys are to be seated in row in such a way that the girls do not sit together. In how many different ways can it be done?
(1) 720
(2) 480
(3) 360
(4) 240
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. Average weight of three boys P, T and R is 54.33 kgs while the average weight of three boys. T, F and G are 53 kgs. What is the average weight of P. T, R, F and H?
(1) 53.8 kgs
(2) 52.4 kgs
(3) 53.2 kgs
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
11. If 2x + 3y + z = 55; x + z - y = 4 and y-x +z = 12 then what is the value of y?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 9
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
12. 405 sweets were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of sweets received by each child is 20% of the total no. of children. How many sweets did each child receive?
(1) 15
(2) 45
(3) 9
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
13. Sudharshan invested Rs. 15,000 at interest @ 10 p.c. p.a. for one year. If the interest is compounded every six months what amount will Sudharshan get at the end of the year?
(1) Rs. 16,537.50
(2) Rs. 16, 500
(3) Rs. 16, 525.50
(4) Rs. 18,150
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
14. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4: 7 respectively, lithe earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings of B decrease by 25% the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8 : 7 respectively what are A’s earnings?
(1) 26,000
(2) 28, 000
(3) 21,000
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
15. The wheat sold by grocer contained 10% low quality wheat. What quantity of good quality wheat should be added to 150 kgs of wheat so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?
(1) 150 kgs
(2) 135 kgs
(3) 50 kgs
(4) 85 kgs
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
Directions (16-20) Each of the questions consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the questions and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) Is/are necessary to answer the question.
16. What is the area of the hall?
I. Material cost of flooring per sq metre is 250
II. Labour cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 3, 500
III. Total cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 14,500
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) All I, II and III
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
17. What was the percentage of discount offered?
I. Profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 252 after giving discount was Rs. 52.
II. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been Rs.80.
III. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 40%.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and either I or III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I and either II or III only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
18. What is the speed of the train?
I. The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec.
II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 mts. in 27 seconds.
III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.
(1) I and II only
(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
19. What is the population of State ‘A’?
I. After increasing the population of State A by 15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B is 7: 8 respectively
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
(1) I only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and II only
(4) Either only I or II and III
(5) All I, II and III
Ans. (4)
20. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
III. One eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I only
(4) III only
(5) Any one of three
Ans. (5)
21. Salaries of A, B and C are in the ratio of 2: 3: 5 respectively. If their salaries were increased by 15%, 10% and 20% respectively what will be the new respective ratio of their salaries?
(1) 3: 3: 10
(2) 23: 33: 60
(3) 10: 11:20
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
22. If 3y + 2x = 47 and l1x = 7y then what is value of y — x?
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
23. If the digits of a two digit number are interchanged the newly formed number is more than the original number by 18, and sum of the digit is 8 then what was the original number?
(1) 53
(2) 26
(3) 35
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
24. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly equal. The number of the part which is not equal to the other four is the answer
(1) 136 x 12 ÷ 9 x 3 =
(2) 17 x 64 ÷ 6 x 3 =
(3) 36 x 17 ÷ 9 x 8
(4) 56 x 8 ÷ 14 x 17 =
(5) 76 x 6 ÷ 19 x 17
Ans. (5)
25. For which of the following values of x the Inequality x (x + 3) < 10 is satisfied? (1) x > 2, x < -5 (2) – 5 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
Solved Paper - Quantitative Aptitude: LIC Officers Exam
Directions ( 1-5) Find out the wrong number in the following given sequence.
1. 7 4 6 9 20 52.5 160.5
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 20
(4) 9
(5) 52.5
Ans. (1)
2. 4 6 12 30 75 315 1260
(1) 315
(2) 75
(3) 12
(4) 6
(5) 30
Ans. (2)
3. 3 4 13 38 87 166 289
(1) 38
(2) 13
(3) 87
(4) 166
(5) 4
Ans. (4)
4. 4 5 9 29 111 556 3325
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 29
(4) 111
(5) 556
Ans. (3)
5. 2 6 16 38 84 176 368
(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 38
(4) 84
(5) 176
Ans. (4)
6. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(1) 4kmph
(2) 6kmph
(3) 8 kmph
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
7. What approximate value should come in place of? in the following equation?
9876 ÷ 24.96 + 215.005-? = 309.99
(1) 395
(2) 295
(3) 300
(4) 315
(5) 310
Ans. (3)
8. Sunetra invested an amount of Rs. 50,000 to start a software business. After six months Nikhil joined her with an amount of Rs. 80,000. At the end of 3 years they earned a profit of Rs. 24, 500. What is Sunetra’s ‘share in the profit?
(1) Rs, 14,000
(2) Rs. 9423
(3) Rs. 10, 250
(4) Rs. 1. 50
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
9. Two girls and 4 boys are to be seated in row in such a way that the girls do not sit together. In how many different ways can it be done?
(1) 720
(2) 480
(3) 360
(4) 240
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
10. Average weight of three boys P, T and R is 54.33 kgs while the average weight of three boys. T, F and G are 53 kgs. What is the average weight of P. T, R, F and H?
(1) 53.8 kgs
(2) 52.4 kgs
(3) 53.2 kgs
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
11. If 2x + 3y + z = 55; x + z - y = 4 and y-x +z = 12 then what is the value of y?
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 9
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
12. 405 sweets were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of sweets received by each child is 20% of the total no. of children. How many sweets did each child receive?
(1) 15
(2) 45
(3) 9
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
13. Sudharshan invested Rs. 15,000 at interest @ 10 p.c. p.a. for one year. If the interest is compounded every six months what amount will Sudharshan get at the end of the year?
(1) Rs. 16,537.50
(2) Rs. 16, 500
(3) Rs. 16, 525.50
(4) Rs. 18,150
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
14. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4: 7 respectively, lithe earnings of A increase by 50% and the earnings of B decrease by 25% the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8 : 7 respectively what are A’s earnings?
(1) 26,000
(2) 28, 000
(3) 21,000
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
15. The wheat sold by grocer contained 10% low quality wheat. What quantity of good quality wheat should be added to 150 kgs of wheat so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?
(1) 150 kgs
(2) 135 kgs
(3) 50 kgs
(4) 85 kgs
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
Directions (16-20) Each of the questions consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the questions and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) Is/are necessary to answer the question.
16. What is the area of the hall?
I. Material cost of flooring per sq metre is 250
II. Labour cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 3, 500
III. Total cost of flooring the hail is Rs. 14,500
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) All I, II and III
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
17. What was the percentage of discount offered?
I. Profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 252 after giving discount was Rs. 52.
II. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been Rs.80.
III. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 40%.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and either I or III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I and either II or III only
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
18. What is the speed of the train?
I. The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec.
II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 mts. in 27 seconds.
III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.
(1) I and II only
(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) Any two of the three
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
19. What is the population of State ‘A’?
I. After increasing the population of State A by 15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B is 7: 8 respectively
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
(1) I only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and II only
(4) Either only I or II and III
(5) All I, II and III
Ans. (4)
20. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
III. One eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I only
(4) III only
(5) Any one of three
Ans. (5)
21. Salaries of A, B and C are in the ratio of 2: 3: 5 respectively. If their salaries were increased by 15%, 10% and 20% respectively what will be the new respective ratio of their salaries?
(1) 3: 3: 10
(2) 23: 33: 60
(3) 10: 11:20
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
22. If 3y + 2x = 47 and l1x = 7y then what is value of y — x?
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
23. If the digits of a two digit number are interchanged the newly formed number is more than the original number by 18, and sum of the digit is 8 then what was the original number?
(1) 53
(2) 26
(3) 35
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
24. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly equal. The number of the part which is not equal to the other four is the answer
(1) 136 x 12 ÷ 9 x 3 =
(2) 17 x 64 ÷ 6 x 3 =
(3) 36 x 17 ÷ 9 x 8
(4) 56 x 8 ÷ 14 x 17 =
(5) 76 x 6 ÷ 19 x 17
Ans. (5)
25. For which of the following values of x the Inequality x (x + 3) < 10 is satisfied? (1) x > 2, x < -5 (2) – 5
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
Maths objective questions on area perimeter and menstruation
Maths objective questions on area perimeter and menstruation
multiple choice questions on Perimeter and Area
MCQ on maths geometry area perimeter and menstruation
1. The length of a rectangle is 1 cm more than its width and its perimeter is 14 cm, then
the area of the rectangle is
(a) 16 cm2
(b) 14 cm2
(c) 12 cm2
(d) 10 cm2
Ans. (c)
2. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 1/3 rd and the width is decreased by 1/3rd , then
the area of the rectangle is decreased by the fraction.
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/8
Ans. (c)
3. A rectangular field 50 metres long and 42 metres broad contains a rectangular lawn
inside it surrounded by a gravel path of uniform width. If the width of the path is 6 m,
then the area of the path is
(a) 240 m2
(b) 480 m2
(c) 720 m2
(d) 960 m2
Ans. (d)
4. The cost of plastering the four walls of a room is Rs 25. The cost of plastering a room
twice in length, breadth and height will be
(a) Rs 50
(b) Rs 75
(c) Rs 100
(d) Rs 200
Ans. (c)
5. The sides of an equilateral triangle are (2a – b) cm, (a + 3b) cm and (2a – 2b + 1)
cm then the perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 21 cm
Ans. (d)
6. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Then its area is
(a) 0.0024 m2
(b) 0.0026 m2
(c) 0.003 m2
(d) 0.0015 m2
Ans. (c)
7. The area of a triangle, whose sides are 4 cm, l3 cm and 15 cm, is
(a) 21 cm2
(b) 24 cm2
(c) 48 cm2
(d) 56 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in integers and its area is also an integer. One
side is 21 cm and the perimeter is 48 cm, then the length of the shortest side is
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 14 cm
Ans. (b)
9. The diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm. Then the area of the rhombus is
(a) 64 cm2
(b) 100 cm2
(c) 80 cm2
(d) 40 cm2
Ans. (d)
10. The area of a parallelogram is 70 dm2 and its attitude is 7 dm, then the perimeter of a
rectangle of equal area standing on the same base is
(a) 40 dm
(b) 28 dm
(c) 34 dm
(d) 17 dm
Ans. (c)
11. If the radius of the circle is increased by 100%, then the area is increased by
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
Ans. (c)
12. If the difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm, then the
area of the circle is
(a) 111 cm2
(b) 148 cm2
(c) 259 cm2
(d) 154 cm2
Ans. (d)
13. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, then the area will be reduced by
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 12.5%
Ans. (c)
14. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and turned
into a sphere. The diameter of a sphere is
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.75 m
(c) 1.25 m
(d) 1.5 m
Ans. (c)
15. If a square and a circle have the same perimeter then
(a) the area of the circle is greater than that of square
(b) the area of the square is greater than that of circle
(c) the area of the square is l/? times that of the circle
(d) their areas are equal
Ans. (a)
16. A circular disc of radius 10 cm is divided into sectors with angles 120° and 150°, then
the ratio of the areas of two sectors is
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 8 : 7
Ans. (a)
17. Three metal cubes of volume 125 cm3, 64 cm3 and 27 cm3 are melted to form a new
cube, then the edge of the new cube formed is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans. (b)
18. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, then the percentage increase in the
surface area is
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300
Ans. (b)
19. A metal pipe has an external diameter of 4 cm and internal diameter of 3 cm and is
20cm long, then the volume, of the metal used is
(a) 22 cm3
(b) 110 cm3
(c) 220 cm3
(d) 440 cm3
Ans. (b)
20. A rectangular sheet of paper 22 cm long and 10 cm broad can be curved to form the
lateral surface area of a right circular cylinder in two ways. Then the difference
between the volumes of the two cylinders thus formed is
(a) 200 cm3
(b) 210 cm3
(c) 250 cm3
(d) 252 cm3
Ans. (b)
21. The height and base radius of a cone are each increased by 100%, then the volume of
the cone becomes
(a) double
(b) three times
(c) six times
(d) eight times
Ans. (d)
22. The radius of a sphere is increased by 50%, then the increase in surface area of a
sphere is
(a) 200%
(b) 150%
(c) 125%
(d) 50%
Ans. (c)
23. A right circular cone and a cylinder have a circle of unit radius as base and their
heights are equal to the radius itself and a hemisphere has the same radius, then their
volumes are proportional respectively to
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 3 : 2
Ans. (d)
24. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 3 cm. If the numerical values of the
area and the perimeter of the rectangle are equal, then the breadth of a rectangle will
be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 1 cm
(d) 5 cm
Ans. (b)
25. If the number of units in the circumference of a circle is same as the number of units
in the area, then the radius of the circle will be
(a) 1 unit
(b) 2 units
(c) 3 units
(d) 4 units
Ans. (b)
multiple choice questions on Perimeter and Area
MCQ on maths geometry area perimeter and menstruation
1. The length of a rectangle is 1 cm more than its width and its perimeter is 14 cm, then
the area of the rectangle is
(a) 16 cm2
(b) 14 cm2
(c) 12 cm2
(d) 10 cm2
Ans. (c)
2. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 1/3 rd and the width is decreased by 1/3rd , then
the area of the rectangle is decreased by the fraction.
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/8
Ans. (c)
3. A rectangular field 50 metres long and 42 metres broad contains a rectangular lawn
inside it surrounded by a gravel path of uniform width. If the width of the path is 6 m,
then the area of the path is
(a) 240 m2
(b) 480 m2
(c) 720 m2
(d) 960 m2
Ans. (d)
4. The cost of plastering the four walls of a room is Rs 25. The cost of plastering a room
twice in length, breadth and height will be
(a) Rs 50
(b) Rs 75
(c) Rs 100
(d) Rs 200
Ans. (c)
5. The sides of an equilateral triangle are (2a – b) cm, (a + 3b) cm and (2a – 2b + 1)
cm then the perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 21 cm
Ans. (d)
6. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Then its area is
(a) 0.0024 m2
(b) 0.0026 m2
(c) 0.003 m2
(d) 0.0015 m2
Ans. (c)
7. The area of a triangle, whose sides are 4 cm, l3 cm and 15 cm, is
(a) 21 cm2
(b) 24 cm2
(c) 48 cm2
(d) 56 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in integers and its area is also an integer. One
side is 21 cm and the perimeter is 48 cm, then the length of the shortest side is
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 14 cm
Ans. (b)
9. The diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm. Then the area of the rhombus is
(a) 64 cm2
(b) 100 cm2
(c) 80 cm2
(d) 40 cm2
Ans. (d)
10. The area of a parallelogram is 70 dm2 and its attitude is 7 dm, then the perimeter of a
rectangle of equal area standing on the same base is
(a) 40 dm
(b) 28 dm
(c) 34 dm
(d) 17 dm
Ans. (c)
11. If the radius of the circle is increased by 100%, then the area is increased by
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
Ans. (c)
12. If the difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm, then the
area of the circle is
(a) 111 cm2
(b) 148 cm2
(c) 259 cm2
(d) 154 cm2
Ans. (d)
13. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, then the area will be reduced by
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 12.5%
Ans. (c)
14. A solid cylinder of glass whose diameter is 1.5 m and height 1 m is melted and turned
into a sphere. The diameter of a sphere is
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.75 m
(c) 1.25 m
(d) 1.5 m
Ans. (c)
15. If a square and a circle have the same perimeter then
(a) the area of the circle is greater than that of square
(b) the area of the square is greater than that of circle
(c) the area of the square is l/? times that of the circle
(d) their areas are equal
Ans. (a)
16. A circular disc of radius 10 cm is divided into sectors with angles 120° and 150°, then
the ratio of the areas of two sectors is
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 8 : 7
Ans. (a)
17. Three metal cubes of volume 125 cm3, 64 cm3 and 27 cm3 are melted to form a new
cube, then the edge of the new cube formed is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans. (b)
18. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, then the percentage increase in the
surface area is
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300
Ans. (b)
19. A metal pipe has an external diameter of 4 cm and internal diameter of 3 cm and is
20cm long, then the volume, of the metal used is
(a) 22 cm3
(b) 110 cm3
(c) 220 cm3
(d) 440 cm3
Ans. (b)
20. A rectangular sheet of paper 22 cm long and 10 cm broad can be curved to form the
lateral surface area of a right circular cylinder in two ways. Then the difference
between the volumes of the two cylinders thus formed is
(a) 200 cm3
(b) 210 cm3
(c) 250 cm3
(d) 252 cm3
Ans. (b)
21. The height and base radius of a cone are each increased by 100%, then the volume of
the cone becomes
(a) double
(b) three times
(c) six times
(d) eight times
Ans. (d)
22. The radius of a sphere is increased by 50%, then the increase in surface area of a
sphere is
(a) 200%
(b) 150%
(c) 125%
(d) 50%
Ans. (c)
23. A right circular cone and a cylinder have a circle of unit radius as base and their
heights are equal to the radius itself and a hemisphere has the same radius, then their
volumes are proportional respectively to
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 3 : 2
Ans. (d)
24. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 3 cm. If the numerical values of the
area and the perimeter of the rectangle are equal, then the breadth of a rectangle will
be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 1 cm
(d) 5 cm
Ans. (b)
25. If the number of units in the circumference of a circle is same as the number of units
in the area, then the radius of the circle will be
(a) 1 unit
(b) 2 units
(c) 3 units
(d) 4 units
Ans. (b)
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